2006-07-04 03:27:38 · 9 answers · asked by In This Last Hour 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
No it isn't. It was lifted out of a letter Thomas Jefferson wrote to the Danbury Baptists, who apparently were concerned about government interference in their church.
The first amendment states that Congress shall make no law respecting the establishment of religion, nor prohibit the free exercise thereof. In other words, there is no federally sanctioned religion, like Anglicanism in England, nor will the federal government inhibit a person practising their religion.
It is interesting to note however, that almost half of the original 13 states had a state sanctioned church and no-one seemed to have a problem with that.
The Constitution was written to identify and limit the authority of the federal government. The original 10 amendments were added as a way of saying that the government must respect and uphold those particular 'natural' rights of its citizens. Neither the Constitution nor the Bill of Rights were designed to enumerate every right of every citizen. Such an enumeration would be in-defensible, senseless and impossible to enforce.
2006-07-04 03:46:28 · answer #1 · answered by mikey 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is not in the constitution. It was taken from a letter from Thomas Jefferson and the concept was derived from what was going on in England specifically and the world in general at the time. At that time the Catholic Church had huge amounts of power to dictate world affairs. If a leader of a country didn't want to do what the Catholic Church wanted, they would be excommunicated and their sovereignty would be called into question. Also in England there was strife between the Protestants and the Catholics and depending on who took charge depended on how oppressed your family would be.
The separation basically means that there should never be a Church of America. It also means that we elect our president, not his minister. It also means that the government cannot pass laws saying you will be a Scientologist or go to jail. It means that if the main body of the government is Chistian, you cannot be punished for being a Jew or Muslim. It does not mean you cannot pray or use religion for guidance.
However, the government can be religious. There is a difference between being religious and being a church. There are several documents that say America's strong religious belief is what led it to greatness.
2006-07-04 11:16:47 · answer #2 · answered by JFra472449 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The concept and phrase was born out of a letter Thomas Jefferson wrote depicting a need for a separation of the two institutions to protect the two from each other.
2006-07-04 10:31:17 · answer #3 · answered by NonSqtr 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's in the first amendment.....
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances.
Secular government is why we havn't had 20 civil wars in the past century. If you'd like to live in a country where religion is part of the government I'd like to suggest Iran and Saudi Arabia. Freedom of religion also means freedom from religion.
2006-07-04 10:39:44 · answer #4 · answered by Franklin 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is not in the constitution. It was first used by Jefferson.
2006-07-04 10:39:04 · answer #5 · answered by » mickdotcom « 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it came from thomas jefferson, i dont think it's in the constitution, but thomas jefferson was the guy who wrote the constitution.
besides its just common sense you can believe something even thought there is no proof, that's what faith is, but you shouldn't be able to enforce your evidenceless belief on someone else.
To take a blind leap of faith off a cliff is one thing, but to push someone else off a cliff, out of faith, is something else entirely.
2006-07-04 10:33:07 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it is not, and thanks to our corrupt lawyer politicians, of whom have D's following their last names, they rammed the big lie down our throats for nearly 2 decades now, and of course as the saying goes, "If you tell a lie often enough, then it becomes the truth" of which they use habitually, and unfortunately the gullible among us absorb it as if it were Gospel, so to speak:(
2006-07-04 10:37:58 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I you people studied your on EUROPEAN history you will see that term started during the rule of the ROMAN emperor constantine around 325 A.D
2006-07-04 10:59:52 · answer #8 · answered by The Monnicker 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I belive it's in one of the amendments.
2006-07-04 10:31:13 · answer #9 · answered by smallville_lover1 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋