2006-07-04 01:38:50 · 8 answers · asked by thelordparadox 4 in Social Science ➔ Economics
Only if he or she is eligible to win, which may include residency requirements. If a tourist from Puxatawney, PA travels to Pittsburgh and buys a ticket there, probably not a problem. A tourist from Zimbabwe might not have so much luck.
2006-07-06 03:08:24 · answer #1 · answered by Veritatum17 6 · 2⤊ 3⤋
You will collect the winnings after you pay state taxes to the state you bought ticket in and federal taxes.if you take lump sum payout that is about HALF but say it 30mill
take home 15mill still not bad
2006-07-04 02:01:14 · answer #2 · answered by Joe 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you have the winning ticket you are the owner of the cash after taxes are taken from it. You don't have to be from the state it was issued in.
2006-07-04 01:45:50 · answer #3 · answered by g3010 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Generally you have to be a resident of the surrounding states to win that states lottery. From what I understand...
2006-07-04 01:42:14 · answer #4 · answered by Joey 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, he will get the money.
No, you do not have to be a resident of the state or of any neighboring state to play or to win.
2006-07-04 01:43:15 · answer #5 · answered by TheOnlyBeldin 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yeah but what if a foreign tourist wins it ? say a tourist from europe or asia? i guess they wont get the money.
2006-07-04 02:11:45 · answer #6 · answered by droids77 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yup, you'll get the taxes discounted. You know, the lottery is sold in airports, too, to anyone.
2006-07-04 01:44:32 · answer #7 · answered by slackster1998 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but he will have to pay the taxes, like everyone else.
2006-07-04 01:41:45 · answer #8 · answered by WC 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋