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17 answers

You generalize. But the answer is ignorance. Many English speakers, particularly in America, know that Spanish is spoken in Mexico, and in most nations in South America, and if they don't speak either they can sound the same. So they just assume Brazilians speak Spanish too.

2006-07-02 13:59:30 · answer #1 · answered by Bad Liberal 7 · 2 0

I am a natural english speaker and i dont think that they speak spanish in Brazil. I know that they speak Portuguese and the rest of South America speak Spanish.

2006-07-02 22:56:52 · answer #2 · answered by HKluva 2 · 0 0

Because in some ways, Portugese has a "Spanish" sound; many don't know that Brazil was Portugese and assume all of Latin America speaks Spanish. If the native speakers are American, most of them don't speak English very well and don't know a second language, so wouldn't know Spanish from Portugese from Swahili anyway.

2006-07-02 20:59:11 · answer #3 · answered by Pandak 5 · 0 0

Because most people when they hear Brazil associate it with South America and then in turn associate that with Spanish because most of South america speaks Spanish. Brazil is different with its Portuguese.

2006-07-02 23:24:08 · answer #4 · answered by charmedgal11 2 · 0 0

I am a "natural english speaker" and I know that in Brazil Portuguese is the language spoken.
Not all "natural english speakers" are idiots.

2006-07-02 20:57:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Most South Americans speak Spanish. People don't usually think beyond that to realize that there are exceptions.

2006-07-02 20:57:48 · answer #6 · answered by karen wonderful 6 · 0 0

ALMOST everyone else in south and central america speak spanish .....so it is just a natural way of thinking that Brazil would speak spanish too.......!

2006-07-02 21:01:02 · answer #7 · answered by max 3 · 0 1

I know better they speak Portugese, The jobs they were doing previously were done in NY, I had to deal with many of them. A 2 minute job often took 2 hours due to language problems.

English is my first language.

2006-07-02 22:17:24 · answer #8 · answered by starting over 6 · 0 0

Because they think every country in South America was colonized by the Spanish.

2006-07-02 21:00:30 · answer #9 · answered by Katheraine 2 · 0 0

Most just don't know any better ...unfortunately. I wouldn't blame it on them but more on what they are taught ... and I am pretty sure that most "natural English speakers" from the UK know the difference.
Ciao.

2006-07-02 23:34:45 · answer #10 · answered by Mana 5 · 0 0

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