2006-07-01 16:46:11 · 11 answers · asked by hailbigfrankie 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Royalty
Henry VIII's last name was Tudor. The only illegitimate son that he acknowledged was Henry Fitzroy, by Elizabeth Blount. "Fitz" derived from the French "Fils" means "son"; "Roy" derives from French "Roi", means "King"; therefore "Fitzroy" = "Son of King". (Fitz- was the name often given to an illegitimate child, with the meaning of "son of".)
King James I of England and VI of Scotland, son of Mary, Queen of Scots succeeded Elizabeth I. He was the first king of both England and Scotland. (He also held the title "King of France", as had all his predecessors since 1422, although now it didn't come with an active claim to that throne.)
2006-07-01 23:58:59 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Henry VIII' last name was Tudor, his illegitimate son(the only one he recognized) was named Henry Fitzroy(son of the king). He was made Duke of Richmond , for a time people thought that he was going to be king as being the only son, but he died young in 1536 at 17 years old, from tuberculosis. After Elizabeth I came James I of England the first of the Stuarts in the English throne.He was the son of Mary Queen of scots.
2006-07-02 10:16:22 · answer #2 · answered by Sakura ♥ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-03-27 00:44:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Henry VIII was a Tudor and Queen Elizabeth I was succeeded by James I. Fitzroy or FitzRoy is an Anglo-Norman name originally meaning " son of the king" - it usually refers to a bastard son of the king, or a descendant thereof
2006-07-01 16:59:46 · answer #4 · answered by chairman_of_the_bored_04 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Henry VIII was Henry Tudor. Fitzroy is the given name for bastard sons of the King. Henry VIII had a bastard child with a woman called Bessie Blount and included Fitzroy in her son's name. James I was king after Elizabeth I died as she had no heirs. He was the son of Mary Queen of Scotts, her cousin, who Elizabeth had executed for treason.
2006-07-04 23:27:29 · answer #5 · answered by samanthajanecaroline 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was Tudor. And ruler after Elizabeth l was King James from Scotland.
2006-07-04 12:05:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Kings don't actually have last names, but Henry VIII was from the house of Tudor, just as Queen Elizabeth II is from the house of Windsor.
You can still get a good argument going in Scotland over who followed Elizabeth I to the throne. In Scotland, they refer to him as James II, because he was the second King James of Scotland. But in England he was known as James I because he was the first James they had had on the throne. James was the son of Mary, Queen of Scots, who was beheaded by Elizabeth I. Well, not personally. She had it done by the Royal Executioner. The story of Mary's beheading is quite dramatic. She was very composed and even stopped to argue with the executioned. Traditionally, the clothing and possessions of the soon-to-be-executed person were given to the executioner, but Mary wanted them given to her ladies, and she got her way.
Mary's ladies were known as the Four Marie's (which was how they spelled Mary in those days). Mary Beaton, Mary Seaton, Mary Carlyle and Mary Carmichael.
And that's probably more than you wanted to know...
2006-07-02 05:35:41 · answer #7 · answered by old lady 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tudor. (Fitzroy would be son of Roy, and would be Scottish, so it wouldn't be him. After Elizabeth died childless, her closest relative was James VI of Scotland, the son of Mary, Queen of Scots. He then united both countries and ruled as James I of England.
2006-07-03 09:14:10 · answer #8 · answered by cross-stitch kelly 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tudor, and i think it was James II who came after Elizabeth.
2006-07-01 16:49:39 · answer #9 · answered by i_luv_the_irish23 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Tudor. James I.
2006-07-01 16:50:44 · answer #10 · answered by sonyack 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋