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Can this be turned into a mathmatical equation?
Length of time waited for sex=Amount of attraction felt
Time waited= t over a

2006-07-01 11:02:03 · 8 answers · asked by c f 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

it would be inversely propoortionate

2006-07-01 13:22:34 · answer #1 · answered by theFo0t 3 · 0 0

I do not think that there is any simple mathematical equation that can answer this. Take for example a one night stand, there may not be any attraction felt, just a need. Than look at two conservative Christians waiting for marriage and both want to finish college first so they wait 4-5 years prior to having sex.

2006-07-01 18:07:18 · answer #2 · answered by andy 7 · 0 0

Sex and attraction are different for every couple.

Certianly waiting can heighten things, but I don't know about "equal".

I doubt it can be turned into a mathmatical equation. It's impossible to prove since people are so different.

2006-07-01 18:06:22 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes...as time goes by the level of attraction rises exponentially. I used to be in the Navy and within a month the girls on my ship actually began to look good. Then when I would reach a port a dose of reality would hit me like a cold splash of water and the Navy girls would look hideous and overweight again. The ony thing is...the longer you wait, yes your mate is more attracted to you but they are also more attracted to other people.

2006-07-01 18:10:33 · answer #4 · answered by X 2 · 0 0

As in, if you're wildly attracted to someone you might have sex with them immediately? Well, until I met someone online that I ended up *pouncing on* the first time we met (something I'd never done before), I would have answered vehemently NO. But then again I've never been as wildly attracted to anyone either. :-)

2006-07-01 18:14:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

for men or women? Women seem to feel that anticipation is a good thing. As men are always thinking about sex, we're always anticipating it and therefore don't have to worry about this problem.

2006-07-01 18:06:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It's actually an inverse proportion up to a point roughly analogous to terminal velocity.

2006-07-01 18:12:20 · answer #7 · answered by ? 3 · 0 1

No.

2006-07-01 18:20:40 · answer #8 · answered by Genius 1 · 0 0

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