2006-07-01 06:06:43 · 8 answers · asked by aronquintanilla 1 in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
After, because the old egg is now gone and the new egg is only at its early stages going through the Fallopian Tube.
EDIT: The reason it is not before, as Jackie said (Wow, some uninformed girls we have here), is that 5 days before, the egg is at the very end of the Fallopian Tube (or oviduct) and is in a prime position to become inseminated.
2006-07-01 06:10:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Neither, actually!!! Anyone who has a typical 28-33 day cycle will ovulate anywhere from 14-19 days after her period! And you only have a 24-36 hour timeframe them! But, sperm can live in you for up to 5 days if it's in the right environment! I would suggest that you get the book "Taking Charge of Your Fertility" by Toni Weschler! It's really informative and will tell you a lot about you cycle! Hope this helps...
2006-07-01 06:13:15 · answer #2 · answered by krazy_gal04 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
to become pregnant i had to really pay attention and had alot of intercourse.....but it is said that in a 28 day cycle that 7-11 days after your period stops is when you ovulate.....and it can happen at any time so be careful
2006-07-01 06:11:31 · answer #3 · answered by feedemsoupbeans 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
5 days before.... after the period the women has already deposed of the egg.
2006-07-01 06:16:32 · answer #4 · answered by fandj4ever 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Before so that will prevent her PMs
2006-07-07 10:49:00 · answer #5 · answered by Cute 7Diva 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
before
2006-07-01 06:09:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
AFTER
2006-07-01 06:10:57 · answer #7 · answered by ann h 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
any time i got pregnet on my period
2006-07-07 11:53:44 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋