2006-07-01 02:50:37 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
What do you mean fair play??
Brasil is the only ''big'' football nation that organised a world cup in 1950 could win the cup even with a draw and lost 2-1,they never asked the ''help'' of anyone.
Other nations have won ''dirty'' world cups:Italy 1934(Moussolini),Germany 1954(dopping),England 1966(referees),Germany 1974(games vs east germany and semi vs Poland(people who are interested know what happened),Argentina 1978(Junta,6-0 vs Peru),Italy 1982(dopping),Germany 1990(penalty????????????? in final).
So do you speak about brazilian fairplay,because Adriano was offside in the 2nd goal????
Give me a break dude...........
Ah by the way I am not brasilian,I am Greek.
2006-07-01 03:00:55 · answer #1 · answered by brasil82 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Can't say but the officials are mostly on the side of Brazil and there's a chance that the conditions will be the same as the match of Ghana vs Brazil...
2006-07-01 09:57:07 · answer #2 · answered by Demolisher 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What are you trying to say? Your English is very bad.
But Brazil will win over France cuz France is a nation of wimps.
2006-07-01 09:53:40 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
France is going to get more respect from the referees. I just hope France can beat Brazil.
2006-07-01 09:53:24 · answer #4 · answered by hardcoco 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there is nothin called playin fair... the refrees make the decisions and u do somethin contreversial then you booked!!! so in the end it is fair to a limit
2006-07-01 10:01:41 · answer #5 · answered by Shobhit C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Your English is very BAD!!
2006-07-01 10:03:42 · answer #6 · answered by John Andri 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
dont know but australia should still be there if thats any help ozie ozie ozie
2006-07-01 09:54:04 · answer #7 · answered by shassa 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋