And don't bother with a lecture on dialects or anything like that, I know that *really* they shouldn't be, and I mean this more as just a silly question that a serious academic inquiry.
2006-06-30 13:44:12 · 28 answers · asked by Ellie 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Absolutely, English and American should count as separate languages. It's more than just dialectal differences. Sometimes we use the exact same phrases but with entirely different meanings.
Examples:
In the UK, if you "knock her up"---it means you went around to the person's house and knocked on her door.
In the US, if you "knock her up"---it means you're looking forward to a shotgun wedding.
In the UK, if you "get pissed"---it means you got seriously drunk.
In the US, if you "get pissed"---it means you are really angry.
In the UK, if you ask someone for a "rubber"---you'll get a plastic eraser to remove pencil marks.
In the US, if you ask someone for a "rubber"---you'll get a prophylactic.
In the UK, if you tell someone to "get you some fags"---it means he wants you to buy him cigarettes.
In the US, if you tell someone to "get you some fags"---you could end up with two very effeminate men with lisps by your side.
American and English are two VERY different languages.
2006-06-30 14:05:55 · answer #1 · answered by stankbref101 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
From a linguistic standpoint American and British English are what is called "mutually intelligible" meaning a speaker of one should be able to understand the other.
There are other considerations in deciding that two languages are different languages and not dialects. One could argue that Portuguese, Spanish, Catalan, and Italian are at least partially mutually intelligible, but for obvious cultural reasons, they are all considered separate languages.
Some other things to consider:
- While actual usage may vary, an American English and British English grammar textbook have pretty much the same rules. There are exceptions, but for the most part, proper American and proper British Grammar are the same. Look at a textbook on Portuguese and Spanish and you will see they differ more than they agree on grammar.
- We both share the same body of literature. Shakespeare, the King James Bible, the rich history of English Poetry we both share.
- Where does this leave Canadians ? Canadian English has elements of both American and British English(but with more elements of American English). Do we have a third language ?
- Simply put, American and British(as well as other) speakers may talk a lot about the differences between the two. In relaity there are other languages out there with wider dialects which are still considered the same language. Go to Italy and see what I mean.
2006-06-30 14:51:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm an American, I worked daily with 500 or so British soldiers for 3 years and I can tell you as a FACT, English {as spoken by the British} Is Not the same as English spoken by Americans!
I agree that are not the same language and should be recognized as 2 difference languages :-)
2006-06-30 13:51:03 · answer #3 · answered by Pobept 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes!
Okay, seriously they are more like dialects, but the other day I was on a website - I can't remember what language it was in - but you could click to set it to different languages. I looked for English for ages and couldn't see it until I realised it was under a picture of the American flag! I wouldn't have minded if it said American underneath it, but it actually said English!
2006-06-30 21:33:27 · answer #4 · answered by guest 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actualy, It allready is. If you were to look in any 2006 Dictonary, it does say what form of English.... and not really a dialect mind you. Like Color (wich is USA) and then Colour/ Colur (wich is Brisitsh) I mean USA and English say it the same way, but its spelling, so I am pretty shure someone allreays said, American English is Diffrent then British English ( The Queen's English) NOW, as for Australlian english... YES M'dear, thats a Language in of it's self! lol
2006-06-30 14:23:35 · answer #5 · answered by warrior_hamster 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I things so... We, Americans, don't speak true English and don't or wouldn't understand it if we did. We also have strong lures to poor English in the variety of subcultures whoes ways of saying things has become a popular vouge. Many people use a double negative as it's used in Spanish. In fact, I do it myself to facilitate understand and herd mentality among my friends who speak Spanish. We've been ripping Black people off for their colorful expressions. I don't doubt that in a few more weeks we won't be able to understand English as it is spoken in the native dialect at all.
2006-06-30 14:15:29 · answer #6 · answered by madchriscross 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nahh, if they were more different in writing then maybe. If it was just based on how people speak then maybe - though there is no ONE American dialect and ONE "English" dialect so it wouldn't be easy to distinguish between the two effectively enough to keep them separate.
2006-06-30 13:49:23 · answer #7 · answered by _jellybaby 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Americans use their own lazy version of English, but it's more of a written dialect than a different language.
2006-06-30 13:51:02 · answer #8 · answered by Burnsie 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I like hearing questions like this better than your last one. I think they kind of already do. They are both "english" but there is real english then there is american english... i think we have you guy's language so screwed up over here haha. Sorry. Actually, have of the people over here cant even speak english. Which is pretty sad i think. Either way, its all english... and i guess you should just try to keep it simple...
Kaylee
2006-06-30 14:02:10 · answer #9 · answered by kaylee k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No I do not believe English and American should count as separate languages.
I also do not believe that the different countries that speak French should be considered separate languages.
Same can be said for Spanish, Chinese, etc.
2006-06-30 13:49:26 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋