Someone on Yahoo answers said it does, he used the Revised Standard Version. Different versions might have different opinions.
I am looking for some good christian answers.
2006-06-30 05:55:16 · 9 answers · asked by Buzbob 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No. The verses you mentioned are not talking about abortion.
They are talking about adultery and what would be done to a woman if her husband was jealous and thought she had cheated on him.
The husband and wife would go before the priest. He would have water and dust from the tabernacle floor mixed together. If she was innocent and had not done a crime...and the husband was just jealous. ... Nothing would happen to her..she would be proved innocent....and the potion would not harm her reproductive system.
If she was guilty of this crime ...her belly would swell...her leg would rot and she would not be able to bear children.
This proceedure was not done on a pregnant woman.
The inability to bear children was a devastating situation to a woman. Unfortunately, women today don't look upon children in the same manner, as a blessing from the LORD. Unfortunately, a lot of women view their children as curses.
These verses shows that God does indeed care about our sexual relations. We are to stay faithful to our spouse. God definitely frowns on adulterous relationships along with many other sexually wrong relationships.
2006-06-30 06:23:56 · answer #1 · answered by Red-dog-luke 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Numbers 5 Abortion
2016-10-05 10:59:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. It s talking about a ritual designed to test people who are under God's law. If they are unfaithful they well get sick. That's all.
BTW- all versions of the Bible should say the exact same thing. It may use different words- but it must say the same. The RSV is not used by most conservative Christians for that reason.
2006-06-30 06:06:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it doesn't have anything at all to do with abortion. The word "curse" is accurately translated from the Hebrew word "arar." If the bitter water killed the child, we would expect to see the word "nakah," or something like it.
This is an example of reading much too much into the Bible.
2006-06-30 06:11:17 · answer #4 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. But this is speaking of willful adultery and unrepentance. There was a punishment. The child would die. But this is hardly a doctor or person performing the procedure. This was the consequences of willful sin administered by God.
2006-06-30 06:02:23 · answer #5 · answered by RandyGE 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is not. First, it doesn't say anything about the woman being pregnant, only that she is unfaithful to her husband. It is, I believe, saying that if the ritual is completed correctly before God, then the woman will no longer be able to bear children.
2006-06-30 06:03:27 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it basically sums it up in the last verse
'This, then, is the law of jealousy when a woman goes astray and defiles herself while married to her husband
2006-06-30 06:03:04 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, see:
http://www.christiananswers.net/q-eden/edn-abortioninthebible.html
And for other Biblical commentary on abortion, see:
http://www.epm.org/articles/aborbibl.html
http://www.christiananswers.net/q-aig/aig-bibleandabortion.html
http://www.crusadeforlife.org/prolife_scriptures.htm
2006-07-01 01:55:49 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
this was a "test" to see if she had committed adultery. it has nothing at all about her being pregnant.
2006-06-30 06:10:52 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋