Well, we can not know for sure, since the Bibles today are not trust-worthy.. a lot of stories are there and many contradict one another.. I personally prefere not believe nor reject the Bibles available today in general..
2006-06-30 02:01:36
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Doesnt really matter. But in any case Jesus was put on earth as a human, meaning that he would have had all the feelings & emotions as a man. The purpose of his being on earth as a man was 2 prove that he he could have all the limitations of man & overcome them.That God's laws are not that difficult for a man 2 follow. Therefore it would not be strange or wrong for Jesus 2 have feelings for a woman. In fact it would be expected. But because one of his jobs on earth was 2 prove that man can resist termptation, I believe that any interaction with Mary was strictly platonic, because otherwise it would have defeated his purpose for being on this earth as a man.Kissing does not mean sexual interest. Italian males kiss each other on the cheek as a greeting but there is nothing sexual about it. And Judas kissed Jesus 2 betray him. So kissing at that time in that part of the world may not have have the same meaning as it do in these times. Dont forget that we have corrupted a lot of things & words that in earlier years were very innocent.
2006-06-30 02:07:46
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answer #2
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answered by Ethslan 5
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yes, I saw on the history channel, it was in some ancient scripture, dates to about A.D. 275, the gospel of philip. but the mystery is where he kissed her, The document says that "Jesus kissed her often on the ..." and then the manuscript is broken at that point. Brown and others have assumed the missing word must be "mouth," but it could just as easily be "head" or "cheek" or even "hand." There is nothing in the context that demands that Jesus kissed Mary on the mouth. Finally, the Gospel of Philip portrays the disciples of Jesus criticizing Mary because Jesus is said to love her more than all the disciples. However, one must assume that if Jesus was really married, no disciple would criticize Mary. The Gospel of Philip thus provides no hard proof that Jesus was married. Nor do any other "gospels" discovered from the second century and after add support to the claim.
2006-06-30 01:49:22
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answer #3
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answered by moonbaby279 4
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Why not? He was human. He must kiss his mother too. In his human life he must have been married too. Of course nobody knows if she was Magdalene, it´s been 2 thousand years ago. Think of this: He was a traditional Jew, and by the time, it wasn´t right for a young Jew to be single at his age, so it is likely that he had to be married.
But what´s the deal with all this Da Vinci´s Code´s madness? It is just a book, just a movie, with a very interesting theory. So it is the Bible: a book with some interesting stories.
2006-06-30 01:53:02
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answer #4
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answered by NEOFROZENED 2
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Jesus was never intimate in the way that you are insinuating. Constantine never altered the original testaments. The only books that where written close to the actual time of Jesus walking on earth are the books that appear in the Bible. All the references brought up by the Davinci Code where written almost a thousand years after Jesus walked the Earth.
The reason there are still people sinning in this world after Jesus died for us is because we still have free will. People are not perfect.
2006-06-30 01:56:13
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answer #5
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answered by Zach 2
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Judas kissed Jesus, & it became a demonstration of friendship back then. I determine that folk merely kissed one yet another as a greeting. So, logically, Jesus maximum probable did kiss Mary Magdalene.
2016-12-08 14:15:07
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answer #6
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answered by ? 3
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Jesus is the type of God that loves the loveless, the downtrodden, an the destitute, an the hated, He loved her because everyone was against her, but He never errored in His life, so when He hugged an kissed anyone, it was with the Love of God in Him, He was strong an powerful in resisting the things that we can not resist, He was tempted like we are but He never gave into any temptations, the only time He showed some fear was going to the cross, but He gave us the example that when we are afraid we go to God (the Father) for power to go on, in this world that is filled with so many troubles. He was strengthened an went on to be like a big brother that gave his life for us so that we can be redeemed an our errors paid in full so we can be 'Saved' Love personified. :+))
2013-10-06 07:12:01
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answer #7
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answered by ? 1
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Kissing was a sign of friendship and respect. I do not believe that he kissed her as you would a wife. Judas kissed Christ also to betray Him. This was done in a chaste manner. Why do some people try to take a fictional book and treat it as dogma? The man who financed the movie "The Da Vinci Code" was a Muslim in case you didn't know.
2006-06-30 01:45:34
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answer #8
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answered by Debra M. Wishing Peace To All 7
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there is no documentation on this one way or the other. the guys he hung out with were probably illiterate, so they never wrote anything. first time anyone wrote anything it was thirty years after the fact. so thats like something that happened back in 1976. now if you talked to some guy who said he heard a story about somebody thirty years ago, but he wasn't there, and he only talked to this other guy in a bar somewhere a couple of years ago, and they were both drunk at the time........
it's hard to say anything about this story.
2006-06-30 01:53:33
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I love thesse questions and this debate. Why is it so blasphemous that Jesus had a wife? And children? Why couldn't he? Being Jewish, he was expected too! Why do Christians hate this idea? In fact, I think I'll post that as a question. I would love to know!
2006-06-30 05:06:42
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answer #10
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answered by shawny4me 3
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In the custom of the day, He would not have kissed a woman. I get so frustrated with the modern translations that seem to just make every verse mean what they want it to instead of what it originally said. God can't be pleased with that.
2006-06-30 01:44:05
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answer #11
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answered by MamaMia 4
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