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I know that the pagan festivals that existed before the Christian holidays were used to encourage pagans to convert to Christianity. The early Roman Catholic leaders decided that if they used a pre-existing festival and incorporated new Christian concepts to it, they would have a greater chance of increasing the size of the flock. The dates of those festivals were acceptable (close enough), and as time went on, the pagan traditions went out and the holidays became completely Christian.

2006-06-30 00:13:16 · answer #1 · answered by Iamnotarobot (former believer) 6 · 0 0

Uh huh, it was to make the transition easier in the Roman Empire the dates were changed and many pagan traditions incorperated.

2006-06-30 07:08:28 · answer #2 · answered by jleslie4585 5 · 0 0

Yes they are and so are all the other holidays that Christendom promotes. Christians should have no part in them. God does not approve of anything of pagan origin.

2006-07-05 19:37:10 · answer #3 · answered by Micah 6 · 0 0

I know they were and the church ( catholics ) used those to fuill in the christian celebrationsbut easter is bassed around pass over time so its still in keeping with the time of the crusifixtion. there is no certainty when Jesus was born so we should remember it every day but it is nice to have a special time of year also

2006-06-30 07:26:28 · answer #4 · answered by Mim 7 · 0 0

Yes

2006-06-30 07:07:06 · answer #5 · answered by tapperlorraine 2 · 0 0

Yes! They was ancient festivals related to the seasons, and they was adapted to the religion and receive new name and symbolism.

2006-06-30 07:10:14 · answer #6 · answered by Nicolaie S 2 · 0 0

The dates are pagan. But why you celebrate them (if you choose to) is Christian.

2006-06-30 07:29:54 · answer #7 · answered by cialear 2 · 0 0

I am sure when you typed this question in, Yahoo Answers informed you that it has been asked about six billion times already.

2006-06-30 07:08:53 · answer #8 · answered by kaplah 5 · 0 0

Doesn't everyone know this who is above the age of 8?

2006-06-30 07:28:22 · answer #9 · answered by Heather R 2 · 0 0

Yes, so are New Years, Valentine's, St. Patrick's, Halloween, birthdays & Sunday Worship which I don't keep. I only keep God's Sabbath and Holy Days--
http://lcg.org/cgi-bin/tw/booklets/tw-bk.cgi?category=Booklets1&item=1104414149
http://community.webshots.com/photo/271589370/1433165698049373547WKKQxs

VERSES FOR THE PAGAN DAYS----DEUT.4:19,28-31; 11:26-28; 17:3; JER.10; GAL.4:8-10 & REV.21:8.

~~VALENTINE'S DAY---PAGAN~~
http://community.webshots.com/photo/271589370/1272715597049373547QOChzt

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EASTER NOT FOUND IN THE BIBLE
"The English word 'Easter' came from the Anglo-Saxon Eastre or Estera, a Teutonic goddess to whom sacrifice was offered in April, so the name was transferred to the Pashal Feast. The word does not properly occur in Scripture although the AV (King James Translation) has it in ACTS 12:4 where it stands for 'Passover' as it is rightly rendered in RV (Revised Version). There is no trace of Easter celebration in the New Testament..." (INTERNATIONAL STANDARD BIBLE ENCYCLOPEDIA VOL.2, P.889). The word 'Easter' has confused some but the word in the original form is "Pascha" meaning "Passover". It occurs 29 times in the New Testament & everytime it's translated Passover except in Acts 12:4. If you read carefully (ACTS 12:1-4); it says that Herod killed James and was trying to kill Peter in an effort to "vex the church"(Please the Jews). Then in VERSE 3 "were the days of unleavened bread"; see LEV.23. He put him in prison intending to try him "after Easter" (KJV). Now if Herod was trying to "please the Jews" & "vex the church" Why would he have delayed the trial until after 'Easter?'" BY GROVER STEVENS (WWW.BIBLEANSWER.COM/EASTER2.HTML) If this was a "christian holy day", especially one in honoring Christ's resurrection, he would surely not be pleasing the Jews, Wouldn't it be more pleasing to the Jews to vex the church by killing one of it's Apostles on it's own "holy-day," would it not?

ORIGIN OF EASTER: WHERE DID IT COME FROM?
Easter was never observed by the Apostles of Christ or Christ's Religion. "The name 'Easter' comes to us from the mythlogical writings of the Ancient Teucrians (who lived 1200BC along the southern coast of Palestine) where it's known as 'Ostern'" BY GROVER STEVENS. "The name 'Easter' is merely the slightly changed English spelling of the name of the ancient Assyrian and Babylonian idol goddess, Ishtar (pronounced eesh-tar)." WEBSTER'S DICTIONARY says "Easter is from the pre-historic name of a pagan spring festival." THE OXFORD DICTIONARY OF ENGLISH ETYMOLOGY says, "Easter is derived from the name of goddess whose feast was celebrated at the vernal equinox." THE SCHOLARY NEW SCHAFF-HERZOG RELIGIOUS ENCYCLOPEDIA says, "This goddess is also widely known as Astarte...The cult originated in Babylonia and spread to Assyria, Mesopotamia, Syria & Palestine, then through the Phoenicians to all of the Meditteranean peoples...Ishtar was in fact primarily and chiefly identified as Venus, the most beautiful of celestial objects & from the terrestrial side, the primarily motive of the worship of Ishtar was the impulse to deify sensuous and sensuality." ALEXANDER HISLOP SAYS IN THE TWO BABYLONS (P.103), "Easter bears its Chaldean origin on its forehead. Easter is nothing else than Asarte, one of the titles of Beltis, the queen of heaven..."
http://community.webshots.com/photo/271589370/1342392041049373547GWqRxJ
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Scripture doesn't mention Jesus's birthdate or any christians celebrating His Birthday. The only birthday mentioned besides Pharoah is the heathen king Herod. "Christmas" means "mass of Christ"; the celebration coexisted in Rome before there was any in Jerusalem. The early Roman Church however did establish a pagan festival that (Jer.10) coexisted with Jesus's Birth and that was the birthday of the sun god. (Encyclopaedia Britannica, 11th ed., article: "Christmas"). The Catholic sources admit that Christmas didn't co-exist with the earliest festivals. Jesus wasn't born Christmas; even scripture makes this evident. "On the night of Jesus's birth, the shepherd's were still keeping watch over their flocks." (Luke 2:8). The rainy season in Ancient Israel began after the Feast of Tabernacles which generally is early October. In November, it would be cool and wet; the flocks from the pasture had already been brought and kept in winter quarters by the shepherds. This tells us the shepherds were no longer in the fields at night. Another peice of evidence is overlooked is in Luke 1:35-36; it tells us John the Baptist was born to Mary's cousin Elizabeth six months before Jesus. And as we look further in verse 5-17, we see Zacharias an elderly priest burning incense on the altar and then an angel appearing to him and telling him that he and his wife would have a son to prepare Christ's Way. We know however when this announcement was made by the angel because of Zacharias was "of the course of Abijah" Please look at 1Chron.24:1-19; it tells us that King David divided these priests into 24 "courses" that served in the temple by rotation. The Course of Abijah would be the 8th of the 24 courses which usually would occur around the end of May. Pentecost came the week after the 8th course served and he had to serve all 24 courses during the three festival seasons. So Zacharias came home approximately after the first week of June; in which John the Baptist was conceived around mid-June and 9 months later would be his birth. John Baptist's birth came around mid-March while Jesus's was around mid-September. Also notice every year people claim 3 wise men seen Jesus in a stable; is this really true? The Bible nowhere states "3 wise men" or "that the wise men visited Jesus in a stable". Read for yourself: (Matt.2:11); these Magi came from the east beyond the Euphrates River which in the 1st century was called the Parthian Empire (the eastern border of the Roman Empire).

I can't finish this: so you would have to see it on:
http://community.webshots.com/photo/271589370/1342393463049373547FazWzQ

2006-06-30 13:33:53 · answer #10 · answered by KNOWBIBLE 5 · 0 0

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