My fiance's favortite answer to this question is that God left out lesbians in the Bible because "even God knows two women getting it on is HOT!"
Keep smiling :)
2006-06-29 18:01:55
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answer #1
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answered by sweetie_baby 6
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Romans 1:26 for one...God wrote the word for mankind so that the applications also applied to the woman...remember he told Adam and eve the day that you eat of the fruit thou shalt surely die...it was not just to the man ...but the woman..and even though SHE commited the sin..the man took the blame...because also in Roman it says by one man sin entered the world....bottom line here is God spoke to man he did also to the woman and as I stated ...In Romans there is scripture showing that it is not condoned...God bless
2006-06-30 01:18:47
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answer #2
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answered by soldier612 5
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I think the thing to consider with this is the fact that during Biblical times, it was believed that women were just storage spaces for babies. They weren't expected to derive pleasure from sexual intercourse. Therefore, lesbianism probably wasn't an issue at the time.
2006-06-30 01:01:43
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answer #3
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answered by TalkingIsASport 2
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it never states sodomy is a sin-that term refers to anal sex because of sodom and gomorrah but god destroyed those cities because of idol worship and ignoring god-not because of sex-that's a falsehood spread erroneously-the sex and other activities was a byproduct of their idolatry-god only gave 10 commandments and the only one about sex was thou shalt not commit adultery-jesus defined any sex act with someone else as marriage when he told the women at the well that she already had 10 husbands-of course in the old testament god encouraged polyagmy so to me, the only adultery is behind your partner's back and not being upfront-mary magdalene was a prostitue befriended by jesus and nowhere in the bible does it ever say she quit!!!
2006-06-30 01:03:53
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answer #4
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answered by The Riddler 3
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Hmmmm, you may be right, I don't remember anything about women not being able to "lay together" like it says about the men. Anybody got any bible quotes(King James please)to that specification??
2006-06-30 01:02:34
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answer #5
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answered by Alias400 4
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I think you can come to a pretty logical conclusion on your own on this one. And if not, then the Bible nor anything else will be able to help you anyway.
2006-06-30 01:01:04
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answer #6
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answered by someguy 3
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I think Lesbianism was not an issue in those times.
2006-06-30 01:00:24
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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my mom says that however ewwey it is but sometimes guys umm can get outta control when thinkin of them selfs..i mean we hear enough stories of father rapin a daughter...so i think dats a reason enough after a sister cannot rape her own sister and i dont think they had any lesbian people back then....
2006-06-30 01:05:39
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answer #8
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answered by Love Exists? 6
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It's Adam and Steve, not Madam and Eve.
That's why god said, "suffer not a witch to live".
2006-06-30 01:03:29
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answer #9
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answered by lenny 7
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look up the definition of sodomy
2006-06-30 01:06:16
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answer #10
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answered by ? 3
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