When parents teach children to believe in a religion, they have the choice to reject it when they mature. However, by being indoctrinated, it becomes more difficult (especially in very devout and fanatical sects) to reject the religion. There are several reasons; rejecting a religion in more devout sects entails severe emotional, social, spiritual, and even financial consequences (disinheritance for instance!). Therefore that child can not be said to have genuine freedom of religion, as they are coerced into their so-called faith. One could tentatively say (and I say tentative to avoid abuse reports) that under coercion, faith can be interpreted as a rationalizing defense mechanism. On the other hand, so long as they live in a country with freedom of religion, they technically do have the legal right to make their own decision. Is this considered sufficient?
2006-06-27
20:31:44
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8 answers
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asked by
AshHeels
1
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
I am not asking about the governmental roler in religion, I am asking whether the term itself is paradoxical. If it is, then it would be inappropriate for any government to claim its citizens are entitled to such a right. Just as the bill of rights entitles U.S. citizens to the pursuit of happiness because it cannot grant happiness, so perhaps should it entitle us to the pursuit of religion, if that freedom is in fact paradoxical.
2006-06-29
17:48:34 ·
update #1