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Hebrews 2:9 -
"But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone." (think of it not as physical death, but a spiritual death in equivelent to everybody that accepts Gods grace.)
1 Peter 3:19 -
"through whom also he went and preached to the spirits in prison"
(see also 4:6)

2006-06-27 11:55:20 · 20 answers · asked by igotalife2000 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

According to the Apostles' Creed after He died on the cross he descended into hell, and on the 3rd day he rose from the dead and ascended into heaven. This website provides scriptures that probably lead to the belief that He did indeed go to hell for our sins: http://www.creeds.net/ancient/descendit.htm . "Some of the standard texts are Job 38:17, Psalm 68:18-22; Matthew 12:38-41; Acts 2:22-32; Romans 10:7; Ephesians 4:7-10, 1 Peter 3:18-20, and 1 Peter 4:6." I grew up believing that Christ literally went to hell for our sins after His death on the cross.

2006-06-27 12:23:24 · answer #1 · answered by celticwoman777 6 · 0 0

Dear igotalife2000,

"Hell" is not a reality at this present time. It will become a reality when the Lord Jesus Christ returns on Judgement Day ie. the end of the world. "Hell" is actually the lake of fire spoken of in Revelation. However, before any person can be cast into hell there must first be a trial. That is where every single person who is not named in the Lamb's Book of Life will stnad for judgement before the Lord Jesus Christ. They will give account of their life before the Judge and sentence will be passed upon them. Then that individual will be cast into the lake of fire to endure the wrath of God for their sins (rebellion to God). The Bible tells us ..there will weeping and knashing of teeth.... there is no rest day or night forever....
But getting back to your question, you see for the Lord to allow anyone into heaven they must have no sins. Now we know that all men are sinners. So how can these sinners go into heaven. Well, the Lord Jesus Christ had to pay for their sins if they are to enter heaven. That meant that Christ had to spend eternity under the fierce wrath of God to make atonement for that person. What man could do that and survive? Only the God-Man Jeus Christ could endure the wrath of God and come out at the other end. In fact the suffering of eternity in hell was intensified because Christ endured in the space of the hours of the crucifiction (the Garden of Gethsemanae to His words on the cross, "It is finished.").
The Lord did this for His elect, His sheep, which were chosen before the world was created (Ephesians 1:3-7). The wonderful thing is that God is no respecter of persons, that is salvation is not given according to intelligence, or nationality, or sex, or ability. God is sovereign and He will have mercy on whom He will have mercy. For more info see www.familyradio.com.

2006-06-27 19:20:57 · answer #2 · answered by pilgrim_153 3 · 0 0

Jesus went to sheol. Sheol is hebrew... Hades is Greek I think. It means a dark place of rest; apart from God.., a place to wait for the final judgment. No one is in hell yet because no one has been judged. That is yet to come.

Those who were waiting in Sheol for Jesus to unlock the gates... rose before He did... on the third day. The event terrified many many people... and that is why the centurion who was in charge of Jesus' execution commented that surely Jesus was the Son of God!

You can read of this event in Matthew 27: 52-54

2006-06-27 19:02:41 · answer #3 · answered by ddead_alive 4 · 0 0

Yes; but He did not stay there very long.

(KJV) Acts 2:31 - "He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that His Soul was not left in hell, neither did his flesh see corruption".

Most Christians who read the NIV are not aware of this fact. Sadly, the NIV strangley handles the greek word "hades" which means hell and is accuratley translated as hell in Luke 16:23; however when referring to Jesus in Acts, the NIV mistranslates "hades" as grave.

The same word used to describe the rich man in Luke 16, is also used to describe Jesus in Acts 2. They should be translated the same way.

2006-06-27 19:06:37 · answer #4 · answered by fresnodan70 1 · 0 0

No, I don't believe he went through hell. The sacrifice he went through that God would accept was only by blood, not by going through hell. He fulfilled the prophesies of the Old Covenant so that we (God's Children) would all be able to be saved of our sins without a blood sacrifice. We actually went over this Sunday in church, but I don't have my notes with me. I might be able to get them at a later date...

2006-06-27 19:01:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well, in my tradition Jesus decended to the dead (before he rose again) before then whe you died you went to a place not heaven and waited even the rightous until Jesus Christ it was next to impossible to be allowed into heaven. So he ministered to them and opened the gates heaven to allow them in. This is were the Catholics get the idea of purgatory not so good for heaven not so bad for hell. A place to work out wrongs and pay one's debt and\or wait till the final judgment.

2006-06-27 19:03:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus went to HADES. The original greek text says Hades and is translated as hell. He went to the good side of hades and removed all the prophets and those who believe in him from old testament times to paradise

Before Jesus, when people died, everyone went to Hades (sheol). If you had faith in God you went to the good side, if you were wicked you went to the side of torment. Jesus explains this in the story of Lazarus and the rich man. At his death he descended into the good side of hades and removed those who had faith from the past

2006-06-27 18:59:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus went to hell for a visit remember he is god's son and he did come back after he died with all power in his hands so he wasn't there to be torured because he's perfect he was just proving the devil wrong and the devil was scared.

2006-06-27 19:03:50 · answer #8 · answered by KATY 2 · 0 0

If you believe Jesus is omnipresent then the answer would have to be true. I personally believe only the Father is omnipresent. But that is my own personal belief, not Christiantiy itself. I've always found the notion of the holy trinity as being extremely difficult to believe.

2006-06-27 19:00:22 · answer #9 · answered by jack f 7 · 0 0

Yes he did. But he defeated the devil, took the keys of death, and came back and currently resides in Heaven on the right hand side of his father, God.

2006-06-27 18:59:27 · answer #10 · answered by ? 1 · 0 0

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