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Does it flat out say ANYTHING about it? If you could give me a verse or two that would be helpful.

2006-06-27 09:39:34 · 17 answers · asked by kjcs_angel 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

The Bible clearly and consistently tells us that homosexual activity is a sin (Genesis 19:1-13; Leviticus 18:22; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9). God does not create a person with homosexual desires. A person becomes a homosexual because of sin (Romans 1:24-27), and ultimately because of his or her own choice. A person may be born with a greater susceptibility to homosexuality, just as people are born with a tendency to violence and other sins. That does not excuse the person choosing to sin by giving into their sinful desires. If a person is born with a greater susceptibility to anger / rage, does that make it right for them to give into those desires? Of course not! The same is true for homosexuality.



We also have to remember that homosexuality is just as forgivable a sin as all other sins. God’s forgiveness is just as available to a homosexual as it is to an adulterer, idol worshipper, murderer, thief, etc. God’s love and desire to save extends to homosexuals (John 3:16; Romans 5:8). God also promises the strength for victory over sin, including homosexuality, to all those who will believe in Jesus Christ for their salvation (1 Corinthians 6:11; 2 Corinthians 5:17).

2006-06-27 09:44:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

LOL

I haven't read the other answers yet, but I'm sure you will get the Sodom story in Genesis, the abomination/kill the fag one in Leviticus, and at least one from the new testament... probably the Romans one...

The truth is there is no place in the bible where homosexuality is specifically mentioned. The people who wrote the bible had NO idea that sexual orientation was something that was different for different people. They assumed incorrectly that everybody was straight and some people chose to go against their natural desires and do homosexual acts. The same people who wrote about these things noted that in other cultures temple prostitutes were often male. EVERY time homosexuality is mentioned in the Bible it is either regarding idol worship and temple prostitution or heterosexuals who became perverted.
Never once does it make mention of people's natural desire for members of the same gender. They didn't know it existed. Just like they didn't know that the earth was round or that bad weather wasn't the work of an angry god, and disease was punishment for wrong doing. They just didn't know.

Basing any theological doctrine on incomplete information is folly.

May whoever you worship bless you.

Ty

2006-06-27 10:03:57 · answer #2 · answered by Dustin Lochart 6 · 2 0

It does... in a sense.

There are several instances of homosexuality in the Bible- Genesis 19:5 tells of Lot's neighbors wanting the angels he had visiting with him brought out so they could sodomize them. Such acts are condemned in Leviticus 18:22. Verse 23 goes on to show God isn't too keen on having sex with kittens either. It's also flung out in I Corinthians 6:9 and 10 and I Timothy 1:9 and 10.

The only thing is that, the language used allows people to argue it. For most religious sects and Bible scholars, the wording becomes apparent. Others call the verses down for being vague- not outright mentioning homosexuality by our words but by the translation of the original text. Sorry for the cop out answer but really the issue is like everything else that's fuzzy in religion... it's one of those things people are going to argue and debate over. It's up to each individual to examine the verses and prayerfully find our own conclusion.

2006-06-27 09:52:06 · answer #3 · answered by Dustin 2 · 0 0

Genesis 19:1-14

Leviticus 18:19-30

1 Corinthians 6:9-10

1 Timothy 1:10-11

2006-06-27 09:47:52 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The bible's references to homosexuality are not dependent on the translation - it has nothing do with whether or not it is the King James version or not.

The known references are:
Genesis 19:5
Judges 19:22
Leviticus 18:22; 20:13
1 Corinthians 6:9
Romans 1:26-27

2006-06-27 09:50:14 · answer #5 · answered by evolver 6 · 0 0

Romans 1:24-27. Paul is speaking and he is explaining that the people were not listening to God, so God allowed them to give in to shameful lust.

There are other verses in the Old Testament (like Leviticus 18) that detail many sexual relations that should not happen, including same-sex.

As a side note, God does NOT hate gays and lesbians, just as He does not hate liars, thieves, and adulterers. With that said, the Bible clearly says that gay relations, lying, stealing, and adultery are all wrong.

2006-06-27 09:49:59 · answer #6 · answered by Sara Q 2 · 0 0

Leviticus 18:22

2006-06-27 09:44:52 · answer #7 · answered by gs_girl_99 2 · 0 0

Leviticus 18: 22 says "you shall not lie with a male as a woman. It is an abomination.
Leviticus 20:13 says - " If a man lies with a male as he lies with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination. They shall surely be put to death.

I am sure it goes for a woman and woman as well.

2006-06-27 09:49:05 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Leviticus 20:13
If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

Mankind in Hebrew means: 1. male (of humans and animals) adj
2. male (of humans)

Romans 1:27
And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another *; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.


You should study this verse in Hebrew. You can go to http://www.crosswalk.com and use thier Stongs Concordance. Email me with questions.

2006-06-27 09:48:13 · answer #9 · answered by trulyblssd 3 · 0 0

Always remember the bible though a great work of art is a book written and interpretted by men for men

2006-06-27 10:15:49 · answer #10 · answered by grizzliesgurl 4 · 0 0

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