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Everything dealing with psychology is a combination of genetic and psychosocial (nature & nurture) That debate is over. Whats relevant is the degree . Everybody's default setting is to become a femal unless certain proactive changes happen to masculinize the body to make a male. These changes happen to different parts of the body at different times (puberty). They masculinize the brain as well as the body. These changes are from the cumulitive effect of thousands of neurons sending varying levels of neurotransmitters to varying levels of receptors. Your genetics determins how many neurons, neurotransmitters, and receptors that you have. That in turn determins to what degree an XY male will be masculinized. A few happily married ladies have been surprised to find out later that they are genetic XY males but lacked certain receptors that used in masculination. On one end you get an underdeveloped penis, then a flaming gay guy, a bi guy, a straight guy then a hypermasculine guy.

2006-06-27 06:35:01 · 8 answers · asked by Adam H 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

In identical twins if one is gay the other has a 50% chance of being gay.
Another study ttp://news.yahoo.com/s/ap/20060626/ap_on_he_me/sexual_orientation_4 also gives evidence to a biological link.

2006-06-27 06:39:30 · update #1

8 answers

It is not up to Christians to let/not let "gay people" get marred. It is up to God.

2006-06-27 06:47:20 · answer #1 · answered by MadDog 4 · 1 0

To Simon: If you were born with a severe degree of mental retardation, would you be able to overcome it? Or if your mother suffered from a malformed body part, should she be able to overcome it? It's the same EXACT THING. I am a born again Christian, and I do NOT see in black and white. To those who insist that a gay person should be able to overcome it, you need to educate yourselves on intersexuality and then extrapolate that to a person who is gay. I am sure that not every person who is gay was born that way; for some (or many) it really is a lifestyle choice. But again... how can you distinguish between Cerebral Palsy and ambiguous genitalia? Or chronic high blood pressure and ambiguous genitalia? All of these disorders are simply due to genetic abnormalities. That's it. Use your brain and common sense to realize that being gay (although I almost hate to say it, because I have a strong feeling that a gay person will read this and get quite angry with me) is most likely a genetic abnormality.

2006-06-27 06:42:22 · answer #2 · answered by Iamnotarobot (former believer) 6 · 0 0

There has been research done to see if the brains of gay men are under masculinzed and several have been inconclusive. Just last semester I took a Neurobiological Psychology class that discussed this topic. There isn't any strong evidence that this is why people are gay.

Christians don't want gay people to marry because marriage is a union between a man and a women. Some Christian religions require the couple to be open to life (ie willing to have kids). Marriage is viewed as a religious ceremony and most Christians view gay individuals as people who do not belong in religion.

2006-06-27 06:50:48 · answer #3 · answered by Candice H 4 · 0 0

To answer your first question, yes, Christians would let gay people marry someone of the opposite sex, even if gay people were born that way. And no, Christians would NOT let a gay person marry someone of the same sex regardless of whether or not a person was born that way. That is because God has forbidden same-sex marriages, and it doesn't matter what God's reasons are, we must obey.

In regard to your pseudo-scientific comments, they are a bit out of date. The theory that men were first women as they developed in the womb has been strongly discredited. At any rate the theory is misapplied here, because a gay man, for example is, not a feminine man. You are confusing different issues here. A man who practices homosexual behavior may be every inch a man in appearance, emotions, feelings, and thoughts. He is no less a man than a straight man. He is merely more aware of his same sex attraction, or he has more same sex attraction, or he has less control over his same sex attraction than other men. It has nothing to do with his masculine equipment. He can be a football player and be just as rough and course and "manly" as any of the rest of them.

A woman who practices homosexual behavior is not more masculine than other women, as a rule. Some women appear to be so, and some men who practice homosexual behavior appear to be more feminine, but this does not dictate their sexual orientation. Some feminine-acting men become targets for male sexual predators, and as such they come to think of themselves as gay. But this is a learned behavior.

Anciently homosexual behavior was practiced by virtually all men in certain societies, such as ancient Greece. These were manly warriors, as in Sparta, they just had learned through the male seducer method, to learn to love having sex with other men.

The biological argument for same sex attraction is very weak, and frequently neglects the environmental aspects.

2006-06-27 07:00:29 · answer #4 · answered by Doctor 7 · 1 0

No. Not at all. Even if it were genetic, it still doesn't mean you have to be gay and one should overcome that. The Bible says homosexuality is wrong so it doesn't matter.

2006-06-27 06:38:42 · answer #5 · answered by Simon 3 · 0 0

God created us to his image, he never makes mistakes! there is no way "a woman is born in a mans body" or vise- versa

2006-06-27 07:16:22 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No, its against the bible. Do what ever you want, but dont expect Gods blessing on it.

2006-06-27 06:40:22 · answer #7 · answered by ? 7 · 0 0

don't know

2006-06-27 06:38:07 · answer #8 · answered by ♥♥♣BABY GIRL♥♥♣ 4 · 0 0

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