Yes the Prophet (peace be upon him) did have slaves.
The matter was that the prophet (peace be upon him) came at a time when a lot of these things were pre-existent. Things that would not harm others, but could benefit them stayed - but with changes.
First, slaves used to be treated as what we know of today of slaves - abused, looked down upon, the literal meaning of "slave" that we carry with us. What he (peace be upon him) taught, though, was that if someone had a slave, they were to be treated EQUALLY - same clothing, same food, same bedding, same everything so much so that nobody could tell the difference between slave and master. Then, Islam also constituted many ways to free slaves, and try to end slavery, due to injustice that was still carrying on. Slaves could work for their freedom, and it was given to them. If certain slaves would teach others how to read/write, they'd be freed. If slaves from another tribe/religion were taken captive, they would be treated nicely and equally, and not beaten upon, etc. Also, along with good deeds such as fasting, charity, etc. the freeing of 1o, etc. slaves was considered one way to get closer to Allah and gain His happiness and Mercy. :) This was the perfect example that the Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) brought with him.
2006-06-26 15:07:04
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answer #1
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answered by Iram 3
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There was slavery before Muhammad came, and they were extrmely mistreated.
Muhammad had slaves (very few, maybe 2-3) but treated them like his brothers, and also to show people how to treat. But he freed them. He bought many others slaves just so he could free them.
Read the one answer above mine.
If he had 2 female slaves, dont think he mistreated them. He never would. And they would be the same way as a normal Muslim woman- with Hijab and no contact- And its unlikely he had a child before marrying her if he did have a child (I dont know)
As for muslim country to end slavery, politics is always in place. Islam may not necessarily take part in all the issues of the country.
2006-06-26 22:30:20
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answer #2
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answered by zun-noon 4
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when the prophet (PBUH) was alive it was no proplem to have slaves but the proplem was how to treat the slave(in a good way or in a bad way).
let me tell u a story about the prophet(pbuh) :
he had a slave who called Zeid and Zeid loved the prophet very much coz Muhammed(pbuh) was so knid with him and he treated him in a very good way,when Zeid`s family knew that he is living with the prophet they went to ask the prophet Muhammed(PBUH) to take all thier money and leave his slave/Zeid.the Prophet refuesed to take the money and said to them :''let`s ask him if he wanna stay with me or he wanna go with u''and he add''if he say that he want to stay then leave him with me and if he say that he want to go with u then i will let him go without taking any money from u''
when they asked Zeid if he wanna to go with them(his family) or he wanna stay with Muhammmed(PBUH) he said this words in Arabic(it was their native lang.)''kla wlahi la 2trokho abdan,lkd w7`d m3ho alhob wa alrhma we kol ma 2ored,sof 2bka m3ho''
Translation''he sweared that he will never leave the prophet(PBUH) coz he found with him and with his family(the prophet`s family) the love and the mercy and everything he want''
do u see how much the slave love the prophet and he refused to leave him,
if u really read his biograhy ,u must know this story.
2006-06-27 12:43:33
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answer #3
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answered by lady 4
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Muhammed also knocked up his wife of 9yrs old. So he was a sick pedophile if you ask me. That disturbs me more than him marrying one of his slaves.
2006-06-26 21:10:27
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answer #4
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answered by docteur4u 2
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no becauce the koran decreed slavery in islam
2006-06-29 00:47:22
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answer #5
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answered by nour m 2
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i think so. he may have been good and all but all ancient societies had slaves, it was the basis of their economies.
2006-06-26 21:10:01
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answer #6
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answered by lizziegirl 2
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