Christ the Firstborn in Colossians 1:15 doesnt mean first created in the greek?

Question

Often while talking to a Jehovah's Witness the subject of the deity of Jesus Christ will be discussed. One of the most effective ways of sharing the Gospel with a Jehovah's Witness is by using photocopies of their own books and magazines. By doing so the Jehovah's Witness is more likely to hear what is being said. It can also effectively demonstrate that the Watchtower Bible and Tract society is a false prophet organization. Until this confidence in the cult's authority is undermined the deceived cultist will usually be unable to truly hear what is being said about God and the Bible. These powerful witnessing materials are available through Watchman Fellowship.

When talking to a Jehovah's Witness about the deity of Christ they will almost always turn to Colossians 1:15 which says: "...who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature," (emphasis mine). They will then boldly declare that it is obvious that Jesus Christ never was, and is not now God because this verse plainly states that He is God's "firstborn." To a Jehovah's Witness this verse reinforces what they are repeatedly taught by the Watchtower, e.g., that Jesus Christ is "the first and highest creation of God," and thus cannot be the Eternal Second Person of the Triune God (Reasoning From The Scripture, p. 409)

To someone new in the faith or not grounded in the Word of God this may seem like a plausible interpretation of this passage. But in reality this type of teaching is just the old Arian heresy resurrected. This heresy was condemned at the Council of Nicea in 325 A.D.
The Jehovah's Witnesses have only added to this heretical doctrine that Jesus Christ is in reality Michael the Archangel. But ask a Jehovah's Witness to show one verse which proves this blasphemous doctrine and watch them look in vain (Reasoning From The Scriptures, pp. 408-409)!

The key word in Colossians 1:15 is the word "firstborn" which is the Greek word PROTOTOKOS. This word is only found seven times in the New Testament and is "...rare outside the Bible and does not occur prior to the LXX," (LXX refers to the Septuagent a Greek translation of the Old Testament around 200 B.C.). So it is important that great care is exercised to see how this word is used contextually in the Bible. Comparison of other passages of Scripture that use this word should also be considered and Greek authorities consulted

(Theological Dictionary Of The New Testament, p. 967). The highly acclaimed Greek manual entitled, The Linguistic Key To The Greek New Testament says that this word "...emphasizes the pre-existence and uniqueness of Christ as well as His superiority over creation. The term does not indicate that Christ was a creation or a created being," (p. 567).

If further research is done on this Greek word it will be discovered that this is the same meaning that other Greek grammars and lexicons give. That the meaning of this word is "preeminence" is plainly shown by reading verses seventeen and eighteen of Colossians chapter one. These verses say: "And He is before all things, and by Him all things consist (or, "hold together"). And He is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things He might have the preeminence," (emphasis mine). Only the omnipresent, omnipotent God Almighty is able to hold all things together.

It is also stated that He "is before all things" and "is the beginning." This shows Christ's eternality. No mere "spirit creature" could have such power attributed to him! Only the God of the universe, Who came to earth in the Person of Jesus Christ and is risen from the dead with preeminence over "all things," could be extolled in such majestic words! He alone as God deserves all worship and praise just as the angels do in heaven!! (Heb. 1:6; cf. Lk. 4:8)

It is equally important to note that God calls Ephraim, the son of Joseph, His "firstborn" in Jeremiah 31:9. Since Ephraim was Joseph's second son born after Manasseh, it is evident again how the Scriptures use this concept. As in Colossians 1:15, the meaning is "preeminence" and does not refer to a literal firstborn son. Compare this verse with Genesis 48:14 where Israel put his right hand on Ephraim's head and not Manasseh's when he was about to bless them. In the Septuagent, this same Greek word, PROTOTOKOS, is used in Jeremiah 31:9. So the Bible gives its own definition of this word regardless of any other source.

One other thing that is crucial to point out is that neither the Jehovah's Witnesses nor theologians understand this word to be a literal meaning of "firstborn." Who is the literal "firstborn" person according to the Bible? It is not Jesus Christ but on the contrary Cain the son of Adam and Eve! So both groups understand this important Greek word metaphorically.

The Watchtower Society claims that it means Jesus is the "first created" of God without any Biblical or reputable scholarly support (Reasoning From The Scriptures, pp. 408-409). The Christian church on the other hand has uniformly taught that the term means "preeminent" or "superior" with support from virtually all linguistic authorities and the Scriptures themselves. It must be concluded therefore that the correct understanding of this Greek word must be "preeminent" and not "first created."

Answer 1

Strong's Exhaustive Concordance says the same thing and the context of scripture also agrees. "That in all things He may have the preeminence" vs18

Answer 2

Even if one were to ignore the Scriptural teaching that Christ was created, Colossians 1:15,16 is still quite problematic for Trinitarians.

For example, if “first-born” here means prime, most excellent, most distinguished; then why is this term only applied to one-third of the so-called Trinity? Why are the Father and the holy spirit not also said to be the firstborn of all creation?

The Bible applies this expression only to the Son, Jesus because Jesus is the eldest in Jehovah’s family of sons, or angels:
(Job 38:7) When the morning stars joyfully cried out together, And all the sons of God began shouting in applause
(Psalm 89:6) For who in the skies can be compared to Jehovah? Who can resemble Jehovah among the sons of God?

The New Testament use of the Greek term "firstborn" would have been consistent with the Old Testament Hebrew term, since most early Christians were former Jews who were fluent in both languages, leading to another reason that Colossians 1:15 actually refutes the Trinity...

Chronologically earlier than its use at Colossians 1:15, the expression “the firstborn of” occurs upwards of 30 times in the Bible, and in connection with living things it ALWAYS denotes PART OF A DEFINED GROUP OR FAMILY. Jesus could not have been Almighty God since Jesus is shown there to be PART OF A GROUP OR FAMILY of intelligent creatures including angels and men.

(Note that “The firstborn of Israel” is one of the sons of Israel; “the firstborn of Pharaoh” is one of Pharaoh’s family; “the firstborn of beast” are themselves animals.)

Really, the only possible grounds upon which to believe that "firstborn" has a special meaning in this one Scripture is to force a Trinitarian "triangular peg" into a monotheistic "round hole".

Learn more about the Trinity at:
http://watchtower.org/library/ti/index.htm

Answer 3

Prototokos can also mean "source," as used in Colossians 1:15. (Cf: Strong's #4416 in the Literal Bible) which clears up a lot of confusion regarding the "firstborn" definition.

Answer 4

All it says it that God the Almighty was here before us all.

"The firstborn"
Strong's concordance:
prototokos {pro-tot-ok'-os}4416,
1) the firstborn
a) of man or beast
b) of Christ, the first born of all creation.

The root for prototokos=protos {pro'-tos}4413,
1) first in time or place
a) in any succession of things or persons
2) first in rank
a) influence, honour
b) chief
c) principal
3) first, at the first

The root pro {pro}4253:
1) before

Answer 5

Matt 3:17,Luke 2:49;John 3:16;John 14;28;John 17:1
We do read the Bible.

Answer 6

Gee, just read a extended fictional work in the form of a story. This guy reminds me of rev. kip, who had Jehovah's Witnesses on the brain, it looks as if he just started on Q&A's today, and 8 out of 13 ??? pertain to Jehovah's Witnesses. He just does not like Jehovah's Witnesses which is his right, or just maybe he has been disfellowshipped.

Jesus acknowledged that he had a superior God when he said to his disciples: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.”—John 20:17.

Jesus mentioned God’s superiority when the mother of two of the disciples asked that her sons sit one at the right and the other at the left of Jesus when he came into his Kingdom. He answered: “This sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give.” (Matthew 20:23) If Jesus had been almighty God, it would have been his to give. But it was not. It was his Father’s to give. Similarly, when relating his prophecy about the end of this system of things, Jesus stated: “Concerning that day or the hour nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven nor the Son, but the Father.” (Mark 13:32) Had Jesus been God Almighty, he would have known that day and the hour. But he did not know because he was not the All-knowing God. He was God’s Son and did not know everything that his Father knew.

When Jesus was about to die, he showed subjection to his Father in praying: “Father, if you wish, remove this cup from me. Nevertheless, let, not my will, but yours take place.” (Luke 22:42) To whom was Jesus praying? To himself? No, he was praying to his Father in heaven. This is clearly shown by his saying: “Let, not my will, but yours take place.” And then, at his death, Jesus cried out: “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Mark 15:34) To whom was Jesus crying out? To himself? No, he was crying out to his Father who was in heaven.

After Jesus died, he was in the tomb for about three days. Who resurrected him? Since he was dead, he could not resurrect himself. And if he was not really dead, then he could not have paid the ransom for Adam’s sin. But he did die, and was nonexistent for about three days. The apostle Peter tells us who resurrected Jesus: “God resurrected him by loosing the pangs of death.” (Acts 2:24) The superior, God Almighty, raised the lesser one, his beloved Son, Jesus, from the dead. To illustrate: When Jesus resurrected Lazarus from the dead, who was superior? Jesus was superior, since he could bring Lazarus back from the dead. (John 11:41-44) It was the same when God resurrected Jesus. God was superior, since he could bring Jesus back from the dead.

Jesus could not possibly be God himself, for Jesus was created by God. Note how Benjamin Wilson’s Emphatic Diaglott renders Apocalypse (Revelation) chapter 3, verse 14:

"And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God" King James Bible -- Emphatic Diaglott is the same.

Colossians 1:15, 16 says of Jesus: “He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and upon the earth . . . All other things have been created through him and for him.” So in heaven almighty God directly created his Son and then “by means of him,” or “through him,” created other things, much as a skilled workman might have a trained employee do work for him. Those things created “by means of him” did not include Jesus himself, for God had already created him. Thus, he is called the “firstborn,” the “only-begotten.” When a child is the firstborn, the only-begotten, it never means that the child is the same as the father. It always means that there are two different personalities involved, father and child.

Answer 7

you are absolutely right, and Jehovah's witness should really read the bible instead of the watchtower

Answer 8

do you like JW's much?