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"But unto the Son he saith, 'Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom" (Heb. 1:8).

In context, this verse is clearly speaking of Christ and calling him God. It quotes Psalm 45:6, an Old Testament prophesy of Christ: "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre". Jesus Christ continued to be God even after He had also taken upon Himself human nature at the virgin birth. It is His kingdom you are trying to enter. The scepter stood for the king's authority. Christ holds the sceptre, and you may only enter His kingdom in the way that He provides (See Matt. 22:8-14

2006-06-26 12:30:30 · 7 answers · asked by Witness4Christ 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

We need to pray for them

2006-06-30 09:15:50 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Something interesting to consider (notice the other Bible translations listed...it is not just the NWT that render Hebrews 1:8 as, “God is your throne.)

Is Jesus the “God” referred to at Hebrews 1:8?
The weight of the evidence indicates that it is Jehovah. According to the New World Translation, Hebrews 1:8 says: “But with reference to the Son: ‘God is your [the Son’s] throne forever and ever.’” This shows that Jesus’ throne, his office or authority as a sovereign, has its source in Jehovah the Almighty God.

However, believers in the Trinity prefer the Authorized Version, or King James Version, which renders Hebrews 1:8 this way: “But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever.” Thus, they feel that Jesus is shown to be the same as Almighty God. Why is this not correct?

First, note the context. In many translations, either in the main text or in the margin, Hebrews 1:9 reads, “God, your God, anointed you.” This makes it clear that the one addressed in verse eight is not God, but one who worships God and is anointed by him.

Secondly, it should be noted that Hebrews 1:8, 9 is a quotation from Psalm 45:6, 7, which originally was addressed to a human king of Israel. Surely the writer of this psalm did not think that this human king was Almighty God and neither did the writer of Hebrews think that Jesus was Almighty God. Commenting on this, scholar B. F. Westcott said: “It is scarcely possible that םיהולא [‘Elo·him′, “God”] in the original can be addressed to the king. . . . Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God.’”

With good reason, therefore, the New World Translation and a number of other translations render Hebrews 1:8 as, “God is your throne.” (See An American Translation, Moffatt; also the marginal reading in American Standard Version, Revised Standard Version and The New English Bible.) This makes it clear that the “Son,” Jesus Christ, has a God who is higher than he is.

2006-06-26 19:57:10 · answer #2 · answered by izofblue37 5 · 0 0

The Witnesses have their own Bible and it says what they want it to say. Your chapter above does not prove that Christ is God. It only proves that some unknown person said that. At least, the writer claims so, but for all we know, the writer invented it like any other fiction writer. So don't believe something because it is in the Bible. Lots of books were put into the Bible and other books were ignored because the people who put the Bible together chose the stories that they liked, without any attempt to select those that were true and those that were false. They just kept what they personally liked.

2006-06-26 19:39:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jehovah's Witnesses understand that Hebrews 1:8 refers to Jesus Christ depending upon Almighty God as the source of Christ's Kingship, just as Jehovah was the source of the human king's authority over Israel (as mentioned in Psalm 45:6). The 'Old English' of the King James Version has been clarified by many modern translations.

(Hebrews 1:8) But with reference to the Son: “God is your throne forever and ever

Trying to cobble together an argument from this Scripture has always been problematic for Trinitarians. By contrast, what do these Scriptures plainly indicate about how the Almighty Father and his Son Jesus are distrinct persons?:

(Colossians 1:15) [Jesus is] the firstborn of all creation

(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me
good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true
witness, [Jesus] the beginning of the creation by God

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was
existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a
seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(John 8:42) Neither have I [Jesus] come of my own initiative
at all, but that One sent me forth

(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse,
but the Father himself who sent me has given me a
commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because
the Father is greater than I am

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have
been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also
subject himself to the One who subjected all things to
him

(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and
at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to
those for whom it has been prepared by my Father

(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head
of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the
Christ is God

(John 20:17) [Jesus said] I am ascending to my Father and your
Father and to my God and your God.

(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

2006-06-27 12:44:22 · answer #4 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 0 0

Yes, they do but interpret that as a lesser god. According to them, God the Father created Jesus, god the son. This lesser god, Jesus, then created all other things.

The contradiction is very obvious: nothing that was created could be God, the everlasting, without beginning nor end.

2006-06-26 19:38:51 · answer #5 · answered by flandargo 5 · 0 0

The ‘Holy Scriptures’ translated by J. N. Darby: The name Jehovah appears throughout the Hebrew Scriptures, also in many footnotes on Christian Greek Scripture texts, beginning with Matthew 1:20.

The Emphatic Diaglott, Benjamin Wilson: The name Jehovah is found at Matthew 21:9 and in 17 other places in this translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

The Westcott and Hort refined Greek text is generally accepted as one of high excellence. The Christian Greek Scripture portion of the New World Translation, being based on this excellent Greek text, is thus able to give its readers the faithful “saying of Jehovah,” as this has been so wonderfully preserved for us in the Greek reservoir of manuscripts.

Professed Christians ought to know that Divine Name. Oh, they do use the name of God’s Son. But rarely, if ever, do they utter the personal name of the Father. Yet, when Jesus Christ was on earth he stated in prayer to his heavenly Father: “I have made your name known to [my followers] and will make it known.”—John 17:26.

It is obvious from the foregoing and from Jesus’ Model Prayer that God does indeed have a name. Jesus even taught his followers to pray that the heavenly Father’s name be “sanctified,” or held holy! (Matthew 6:9) Why, then, is it not used in the churches of Christendom? And why is that name missing from most modern translations of the Bible?

God’s name does occur in its abbreviated form in both the old Greek manuscripts and the translations of them. In your Bible reading have you observed at Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, the expression “Alleluia” or “Hallelujah”? According to Webster’s New Collegiate Dictionary “Hallelujah” means: “Praise ye Yah (Jehovah).”
Jesus repeatedly held the name of his Father before the people in his ministry. For example, he taught his disciples to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.” (Matt. 6:9) His works, he said, were done “in the name of my Father.” (John 10:25) And in prayer on the night of his death, he said that he had ‘made his Father’s name manifest’ to his disciples.

Recently a clergyman in Brooklyn, New York, obtained a copy of the book The Truth That Leads to Eternal Life. He was so impressed with the chapter dealing with prayer that he used the book to teach members of his church this chapter in a special meeting. Later he was asked by one of them, “Are you teaching us out of those Jehovah’s witnesses’ books?”

He replied: “It is the truth, isn’t it? When you want Sunday-school literature, you buy it from several sources, don’t you? Well, Jehovah’s witnesses teach the truth. Furthermore, when you see Jehovah’s witnesses with the Watchtower magazine, you ought to buy it, because they print the truth.”

2006-06-26 21:54:44 · answer #6 · answered by BJ 7 · 0 0

well actually they don't read all of the Bible some parts are left out if you look closely at their version of the bible...... JUST REMEMBER TO PRETEND YOUR NOT AT HOME IF THEY COME TO YOUR HOUSE BECAUSE IF YOU INVITE THEM IN YOU WILL NEVER GET RID OF THEM!heheh!!

2006-06-26 19:35:18 · answer #7 · answered by leo29sexy 3 · 0 0

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