How can you not take literally a child being boiled and eaten?
What does that symbolize? Oh, that the hot water was God's love and the baby being eaten was allowing God into your heart, give me a break!! Everytime a valid point is brought up, you all say not to take it literally... then why read the damn thing if none of it is real??
That's friggin disgusting and once again proves my theory that Jesus was nothing but a masochistic cult leader.
If God was so great and wonderful and magical, he would've done what was in his (lowercase h) power to stop the famine so people wouldn't have resorted to eating their children. Either way, if people had to eat their children, he allowed it. Doesn't sound like a great "god" to me.
2006-06-26 06:01:00
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answer #1
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answered by Miss D 3
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These two verses are from the story of the second siege of Samaria by king Aram's army.
The siege is the cause for a famine so severe that people are starting to eat their own children.
In the later verses, the king of Israel becomes so distraught that he has no more trust in Yahweh.
A bunch of events later, the Aramaean army is mistaken in thinking that the Hittites are coming to help Samaria, and leaves, ending the famine.
So I don't think God is ordering much abuse here... If anything, he helped break the siege, despite the lack of faith of the king.
2006-06-25 15:55:44
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answer #2
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answered by Eric 2
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God didn't tell the woman to boil her son.
God doesn't want you to hurt your children. Do you even read the bible, or just the parts you want to use to deceive people?
2 Kings 6:
24 And it came to pass after this, that Benhadad king of Syria gathered all his host, and went up, and besieged Samaria. 25 And there was a great famine in Samaria: and, behold, they besieged it, until an ***'s head was sold for fourscore pieces of silver, and the fourth part of a cab of dove's dung for five pieces of silver. 26 And as the king of Israel was passing by upon the wall, there cried a woman unto him, saying, Help, my lord, O king. 27 And he said, If the LORD do not help thee, whence shall I help thee? out of the barnfloor, or out of the winepress? 28 And the king said unto her, What aileth thee? And she answered, This woman said unto me, Give thy son, that we may eat him to day, and we will eat my son to morrow. 29 So we boiled my son, and did eat him: and I said unto her on the next day, Give thy son, that we may eat him: and she hath hid her son. 30 And it came to pass, when the king heard the words of the woman, that he rent his clothes; and he passed by upon the wall, and the people looked, and, behold, he had sackcloth within upon his flesh.
2006-06-25 15:48:06
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answer #3
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answered by mornings_sunshine 2
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Okay... you ask us to answer from our mind.... but you give us a verse from the Bibile... too easy.... you first should study ancient Greek and Hebrew... remember that the "approved" transalation was done in the 1300's..... what time period is the book of Kings from.... about 3300 years before.... languages evolve. Now couple that with are you taking it literally or figuratively?? If you take it literally... you've missed the meaning and used the passage not as it was intended. You have to find your own meaning from the Bible, but try not use todays words to decode an early translation... it will come out twisted.
2006-06-25 15:38:54
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answer #4
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answered by tcatmech2 4
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#1 if you read your bible you would know that god did not order the eating of children. First and second Kings tells the history of the Kings of Israel. This account was during the great Famine that fell upon Samaria after Benhadad the king of Syria laid siege to it. The woman was saying that they were so hungry one women told her they could eat her son today, and the other womens tommorow. When it came time for the other women to give up her son, she hid him. What on earth made you think that god ordered these women to eat their own children? It was out of desparation that they ate them.
2006-06-25 15:42:30
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answer #5
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answered by love_life_jett 2
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If you would of really understood what you wrote, God did not order the child abuse if anything God was offended. The Prophet that they went to, or was it a king. Any ways the servent ripped off his cloths has a sign saying this is not good.
2006-06-25 18:11:36
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answer #6
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answered by princezelph 4
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They also took child brides back then...out of nessity due to a shirter life span...a lot of things said in the Old Testement is glimpse of life eons ago...you cannot dissect a passage from The Bible and apply it to todays mores..
What the Bible teaches is Love..read the New Testement...and above all else understand what your reading instead of trying to be a smart a**.
2006-06-25 15:37:05
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answer #7
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answered by jaydragon0 2
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How can you ask a question and say:
"Answer this from YOUR mind and not what the bible says"
And then you turn around and use bible verses in the same question?
I say, "Get behind me Satan!"
If you want to know about the Bible, keep it in context. Don't just pull out a random verse and try to trap people with it.
2006-06-25 15:36:33
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answer #8
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answered by Consuming Fire 7
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You have twisted and distorted this verse way out of context. NEVER did God order this situation to occur. This verse simply shows the extreme evil of which the people of Israel had attained by turning it's back from God. Not only did this situation occur but they were also following after false gods and worshipping idols of pagans.
It still amazes me how God ALWAYS forgave his people everytime they turned towards him time after time.
2006-06-25 15:38:01
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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well i don't read the bible I'm not even a part of the catholic religion but my view on child abuse is anyone who hits or abuse a child in any way should be abuse they self and they should be locked up and the key should be tossed away be cause and one who can hit a child is sick and twisted and i cant stand them because kids should be helped and adored
2006-06-25 15:57:29
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answer #10
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answered by Red Raven Silver Cloud 1
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