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There is a verse in Quran [65:4] that says that if you divorce your wife and she has NOT ATTAINED PUBERTY YET, she will have to stay for three months after her divorce before being allowed to re-marry.

Does this verse mean that all Muslim men are allowed to marry child girls (same like what prophet Muhammed did)?

No abusive answers please, and no copy-and-paste answers please.

2006-06-25 15:08:38 · 15 answers · asked by Mostafa Al Banna 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

this is the quote from the official English translation:
"and for those who have no courses yet (it is the same)"

http://quran.al-islam.com/Targama/DispTargam.asp?nType=1&nSeg=0&l=arb&nSora=65&nAya=4&t=eng

2006-06-25 15:22:19 · update #1

15 answers

The bible does not prohibit marrying babies, why should the koran?

Isaac (at 40) married Rebekah when she was three.

2006-06-25 15:11:25 · answer #1 · answered by Left the building 7 · 0 1

The verse you have quoted doesn't refer to any word such as puberty. No where in the Noble Quran, one would come across marriage of minors. What you have mistakenly quoted is about divorce. Some people believe that at any time a muslim man can divorce his wife by simply stating "I divorce you". This can lead anyone ignorant of the Islamic ruling regarding divorce to believe that in less than five seconds the woman is left with no husband and is left to care for herself (and possibly children) by any means necessary. The truth of the matter is that Islam has the most humane and most just system of divorce that exists. Firstly, many options are taken and tried before coming to the decision of the divorce. If the man and woman decide that they can no longer live together successfully as a husband and wife, the husband (in most cases, not always) pronounces the divorce by saying "I divorce you". At this point the waiting period begins. The waiting period lasts for three menstrual cycles to assure the woman is not pregnant. This period allows the couple time to think about what they are doing and if this is what they really want to do. There are no lawyers involved to antagonize an already delicate situation. In the case that it is realized, that the woman is pregnant, the waiting period lasts the entire time she is pregnant. During the waiting period (whether the woman is pregnant or not) the man is obligated to provide food, clothing and shelter to the woman as he did before the divorce pronouncement. If the couple carries the divorce through to the birth of the child and the woman suckles the baby, the man is obligated to feed and clothe both his ex-wife for the time the woman suckles (the maximum being two years). After this weaning, the child will be provided for by the father until he/she is no longer in need of support. It is quite ironic that in such an "advanced society" as America, there are divorce cases in which women are being forced to pay alimony to their ex-husbands. Can this and many other things we know about the American system of divorce compare to the Islamic system of divorce?

2006-06-26 16:51:20 · answer #2 · answered by Biomimetik 4 · 0 0

Women after certain age stops menustation(menopause). So " for those who have no courses" can mean to those women or can be those women who do not have courses due to some desease. As mentioned in your question there is no "YET" in the translation or in the actual verse. If Quran said courses only, it will become impossible to divorse women who do not have courses due to some illness or after menopause.

Attainment of puberty is required for a man or woman to get married in Islam.

2006-06-26 02:23:57 · answer #3 · answered by inin 6 · 0 0

No. I have read the Quran 2 times cuz I'm a muslim. It says that, but a man cannot marry a child girl. It says clearly in a verse I can't remember. If a man was to even marry a girl, he would need permission from her parents, if he does it by force then he is sent to prison.

2006-06-25 22:14:01 · answer #4 · answered by Optimistic 3 · 0 0

Sure, why not? The Mormons do it. And the Bible lets you sell your daughter and all sorts of other horrible stuff that the jesus types try to rationalize today.

Keep in mind that a religion does not have to make any sense, and if it is written, so it must be (at least in the mind of believers who have chosen to accept a religion as true and inerrant). If you look back at the worst atrocities in human history, nearly all of them were inspired by religious belief.

2006-06-25 22:14:20 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

In "Olden times" many marriages were performed between children. This was especially common between wealthy and/or royal families. After the marriage they usually still lived with their parents until they were old enough to support themselves or reached the "age of maturity" for that country.

And daBlaze, Mormons do NOT marry children. Good heavens, where the heck do people get this junk???!!!!

2006-06-25 22:14:13 · answer #6 · answered by Raynanne 5 · 0 0

Thank you for your question.

Firstly, in Islam man and woman are not allowed to consumate the marriage until they both reach the age of Puberty.

you must understand that we have something called an Islamic Contract.

Which is an oral contract in which both parties agree to marry.

However, the consumation of the marriage (which is by having intercourse) can only be done after both reach the age of puberty.


so marriage before puberty does not mean that they had sexual relations.

please see IslamQA.com for further questions. they have innumerable answers for questions, and are very reliable.

wallahu alem(and Allah knows best)

2006-06-28 00:05:30 · answer #7 · answered by Shirien 2 · 0 0

Muhammed did.

"The Prophet married Aisha in Mecca three years before the Hijrah, after the death of Khadija. At the time she was six." (Ishaq:281)

"When the Apostle came to Medina he was fifty-three." (Tabari VII:6) "In May, 623 A.D./A.H. 1, Allah's Messenger consummated his marriage to Aisha."

2006-06-26 04:35:22 · answer #8 · answered by mo mosh 6 · 0 0

Yes

2006-06-25 22:11:27 · answer #9 · answered by C P 2 · 0 0

Islam never allow you to marry a child girl
prophet Muhammed marry a child girl cuz he need this girl to help to tell womens about what they must do without embarrassment like (masturbation,confinement) and other things

this page can help with translation:
http://translate.google.com/translate?u=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.nooralfajr.com%2Findex.php%3Faction%3DshowMaqal%26id%3D431&langpair=ar%7Cen&hl=ar&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&prev=%2Flanguage_tools

2006-06-25 22:20:24 · answer #10 · answered by jack j 1 · 0 0

Since the way you asked this question it's clear that you have no knowledge of Islam, so I would first recommend you to learn amount Islam then question it.

http://askmuslims.com

2006-06-28 21:47:41 · answer #11 · answered by askmuslims1 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers