He loves the sinner but rejects the sin.
In Leviticus, they didn't have Jesus.
God So love the gays that he sent his Son to save them.
2006-06-23 14:27:48
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answer #1
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answered by shinebp 2
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Since I don't believe the Bible to be the word of God, the question is ultimately irrelevant.
Any Tom, Dick and Harry can write their own views and then claim they were "inspired by God". The proof of that is that there are thousands of writings in the Bible, but only a relatively few were selected to what today is considered the Bible. Who decided? Why did they decide it? The answers to these questions are quite simple: It is a way for the few to dominate the masses, and it has worked with most throughout the past 2000 years.
As far as I'm concerned, as long as I treat others the way I want to be treated, I can't go wrong in any way. As far as the Bible is concerned, it will become handy the day I run out of toilet paper.
2006-06-23 14:46:48
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answer #2
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answered by imagineworldwide 4
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Actually.... NO! Correct me if I'm wrong, but where in that verse does it say that God doesn't approve of homosexuality? It simply says, and I quote, they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them. This inclines me to believe that God simply predicted that mankind wouldn't stand for homosexuality, not that he personally had a problem with it. Of course, people like you also think that homosexuals are going to hell... and it only says that they will die. For that matter... did God actually write that? Nope, actually it's only the words of one man who felt he had a rite to speak on God's behalf. For that matter, if God didn't approve of homosexuality, why would he have made it a possibility... I mean, if it had never been placed in the bible as being a possibility... would anyone have ever even considered doing it. Also... I bet you money that you don't have a problem with lesbians. HYPOCRITE!!!
2006-06-23 14:34:49
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answer #3
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answered by TheLizard 3
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God made homos, too. The same penalty applies to a man who 'lieth' with a woman to whom he is not married (and the woman, too).
Does God not approve of heterosexuals?
The difference is with the act, not the orientation. It is 'fornication' which is an abomination, for both man on man and man on woman.
God was just closing a loophole that is created by saying that men and women, who are not married can't have sex. Some sick SOB was going to say, "Hey, He didn't say anything about doing other guys!". Just covering all the bases.
2006-06-23 14:35:32
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answer #4
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answered by normobrian 6
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It's funny how christians ignore all the commandments in Leviticus that they can't be bothered to follow by saying that Jesus's sacrifice overrides it (worn cotton/polyester mix lately, for instance). But when it comes to justifying their ignorance and homophobia they immediate start spouting Leviticus to support their view. Is this the only part of Leviticus that still applies? Just why would that be? Where did JESUS say that homosexuality was wrong?
And they wonder why people think christians are hypocrites. Make up your minds already.
2006-06-23 14:35:42
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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God has spoken and pronounced that if a male lies with yet another male as with a woman, it is an abomination to God (Leviticus 18:22), so needless to say God's love shouldn't help what He says is an abomination. in the journey that your Uncle murdered somebody, even although you adore your Uncle, does your love help homicide? of path no longer. to boot God would not love all and sundry. Jacob He enjoyed and Esau God hated (Romans 9:13) The Bible says God loves who love Him (Proverbs 8:17) check out the scriptures Proverbs 8:17 John 14:21, 23 and so on
2016-12-09 00:50:32
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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This is a topic we will never know exactly how God feels until we die and meet him on judgment day. I agree with someone else's answer, God does love everyone but He doesn't love the sin we commit. And being a homosexual is a sin because they can't get married to each other so they are fornicating...which is a sin.
2006-06-23 14:42:48
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answer #7
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answered by mageta8 6
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Neither God nor the bible dissect sin into what is in or what is out. The God hates sin, which includes a self righteous attitude.
"Pride goes before a fall." Think about it and begin to love like Jesus loves.
2006-06-23 14:33:34
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answer #8
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answered by Richard Stapleton 2
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Because "God" is whoever/whatever the believer wants it to be. Many people don't live their lives according to a fictitious book.
"The very concept of sin comes from the bible. Christianity offers to solve a problem of its own making! Would you be thankful to a person who cut you with a knife in order to sell you a bandage?"
- Dan Barker
2006-06-23 14:29:05
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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So the Hebrews were homophobic, does that prove God said so? How exactly did God speak, as He has no mouth?
The Bible also requires the brothers of deceased husbands to have sex with their widows. Why don't we? It's God's law.
2006-06-23 14:30:01
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answer #10
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answered by thylawyer 7
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not my own words, but this explains it exactly as i would describe it:
Leviticus 18:6 reads: "You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female. It is an abomination." A similar verse occurs two chapters later, in Leviticus 20:13: "A man who sleeps with another man is an abomination and should be executed." On the surface, these words could leave you feeling rather uneasy, especially if you are gay. But just below the surface is the deeper truth about God -- and it has nothing to do with sex.
Leviticus is a holiness code written 3,000 years ago. This code includes many of the outdated sexual laws we mentioned earlier, and a lot more. It also includes prohibitions against round haircuts, tattoos, working on the Sabbath, wearing garments of mixed fabrics, eating pork or shellfish, getting your fortune told, and even playing with the skin of a pig. (There goes football!)
So what's a holiness code? It's a list of behaviors that people of faith find offensive in a certain place and time. In this case, the code was written for priests only, and its primary intent was to set the priests of Israel over and against priests of other cultures.
What about this word abomination that comes up in both passages? In Hebrew, "abominations" (TO'EBAH) are behaviors that people in a certain time and place consider tasteless or offensive. To the Jews an abomination was not a law, not something evil like rape or murder forbidden by the Ten Commandments. It was a common behavior by non-Jews that Jews thought was displeasing to God.
Jesus and Paul both said the holiness code in Leviticus does not pertain to Christian believers. Nevertheless, there are still people who pull the two verses about men sleeping together from this ancient holiness code to say that the Bible seems to condemn homosexuality.
But wait, before we go any further, let's ask: What does this text say about God? Even if the old holiness codes no longer apply to Christians, it's important to remember that in every age, people of faith are responsible for setting moral and ethical standards that honor God. But people of faith must be very careful not to allow our own prejudices to determine what those standards should be.
Instead of selecting one item from an ancient Jewish holiness code and using it to condemn sexual or gender minorities, let's talk about setting sexual standards that please God -- standards appropriate for heterosexuals and homosexuals alike, standards based on loving concern, health, and wholeness for ourselves and for others.
Now what do the Leviticus passages say about homosexuality?
I'm convinced those passages say nothing about homosexuality as we understand it today. Here's why. Consider this single Bible passage that was used for centuries to condemn masturbation:
"He spilled his seed on the ground... And the thing which Onan did displeased the Lord: wherefore he slew him also" (Genesis 38:9-10).
For Jewish writers of Scripture, a man sleeping with another man was an abomination. But it was also an abomination (and one worthy of death) to masturbate or even to interrupt coitus (to halt sex with your spouse before ejaculation as an act of birth control). Why were these sexual practices considered abominations by Scripture writers in these ancient times?
Because the Hebrew pre-scientific understanding was that the male semen contained the whole of life. With no knowledge of eggs and ovulation, it was assumed that the man's sperm contained the whole child and that the woman provided only the incubating space. Therefore, the spilling of semen without possibility of having a child was considered murder.
The Jews were a small tribe struggling to populate a country. They were outnumbered by their enemy. You can see why these ancient people felt it was an abomination to risk "wasting" even a single child. But the passage says nothing about homosexuality as we understand it today.
2006-06-23 14:33:45
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answer #11
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answered by Thinx 5
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