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Through my reading in Quran, I found a verse that I could not clearly understand. It says that [37:22]: "Bring the infidels and their WIVES, and the things they worshipped, Besides Allah, and lead them to the Way to the Fierce Fire"

Does this mean that a wife of an infidel will be punished for a sin committed by her husband?

2006-06-23 08:12:37 · 7 answers · asked by Mostafa Al Banna 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

http://quran.al-islam.com/Targama/DispTargam.asp?nType=1&nSeg=0&l=arb&nSora=37&nAya=22&t=eng

2006-06-23 08:41:17 · update #1

Lily
I know that prophet Muhammed had two daughters (Rokkaya & Om Kalthoum) who were both married to infidels. Does this mean they both will go to hell with their husbands?

2006-06-24 11:44:03 · update #2

7 answers

no no no this mean,their companions
in Arabic language the word ( هم وازواجهم) it doesn't mean his wife its literally translation from the word it means those who do the same action ( worshiping someone else besides Allah)
it mean all those who followed them and imitate them in these action,it doesn't mean their wives .
Arabic language sometimes cant be translated well and this translation u read is not correct as it translate it literally
as we have rule in quran said that no one will be punished for someone sins
but i cant remember the no of this verse so i told u the meaning of it as it says that no one will be punished for someone else mistakes.

2006-06-23 08:26:53 · answer #1 · answered by maryam 2 · 3 1

No, this is not the case. A wife or a spouse will only be punished if SHE is also disobeying Allah, as was the case with the wife of Lot and the wife of Noah. A lot of the main people against Islam at that time had very vengeful wives as well (who would physically try to harm the Muslims of that day) such as Abu Lahab's wife - Umm Jameel.

Please read through some tafseer of these verses, b/c they will better explain the context. Once you see things in their proper context, you will know how to apply that ruling to yourself today.

Oh yes, and Ruqqayah nor Umm Kulthum were told they would go to Hell - they were believers in one God, even though they were at FIRST married to Abu Lahab's sons. They then married Uthman (one married him first, and then after she died, he married the other one.) So they were not married to an "infidel" upon their deaths.

2006-06-26 22:27:18 · answer #2 · answered by Iram 3 · 0 0

The following link provides an explanation of what the verse means (and it is from the first site you gave us a link to). The greatest of the scholars agree that the word "azwajahom" means not the wives but "the ones who are similar to them".

http://quran.al-islam.com/Tafseer/DispTafsser.asp?nType=1&bm=&nSeg=0&l=arb&nSora=37&nAya=22&taf=KATHEER&tashkeel=0

Each person is only held responsible for his/her own deeds. Following is a translation of two verses of the noble Quran that further support my point:

"God sets forth, for an example to the Unbelievers, the wife of Noah and the wife of Lut: they were (respectively) under two of our righteous servants, but they were false to their (husbands), and they profited nothing before God on their account, but were told: "Enter ye the Fire along with (others) that enter!"
And God sets forth, as an example to those who believe the wife of Pharaoh: Behold she said: "O my Lord! Build for me, in nearness to Thee, a mansion in the Garden, and save me from Pharaoh and his doings, and save me from those that do wrong";"[Translation of verses 66:10 and 66:11 of the noble Quran]

2006-06-23 16:21:46 · answer #3 · answered by isita 5 · 0 0

The holy Quran66:11
And Allâh has set forth an example for those who believe: the wife of Fir‘aun (Pharaoh), when she said: "My Lord! Build for me a home with You in Paradise, and save me from Fir‘aun (Pharaoh) and his work, and save me from the people who are Zâlimûn (polytheists, wrong-doers and disbelievers in Allâh).

As you see although Pharaoh is considered one of the most evil persons of all times his wife was one of the best women of all times and she goes to Paradise while he goes to Hell.
The meaning of the verse you listed is only for evil wives and not general. In another verse the Quran also mentions that the family of the believers will go with them to Paradise but again this is only for the believers of them, the non believers go to Hell.

2006-06-23 16:15:44 · answer #4 · answered by helper 4 · 0 0

In almost all religion to date, the husband teaches the wife they correct beliefs. So by the infidel being wrong, the wife must have been taught to do wrong as well.

2006-06-23 15:17:06 · answer #5 · answered by LoAnnie81 3 · 0 0

Pharaoh is going to hell, but his wife is one of the 4 pious women of all time according to Islam w/ the Virgin Mary, the mother of prophet Ishmael Haggar, and Fatima bint Muhammad, the only daughter of Prophet Muhammad (SAW).

2006-06-23 15:40:46 · answer #6 · answered by Ismael B 3 · 0 0

the wife of the infidel would also be an infidel.
because:
if she was a Muslim ,she wouldn't marry an infidel from the beginning.
if she was a Muslim who is married to a Muslim who later becomes an infidel ,she will leave him and get a divorce.
so infidel men must be married to infidel women.

2006-06-24 18:15:30 · answer #7 · answered by lily 5 · 0 0

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