yes
2006-06-23 07:52:47
·
answer #1
·
answered by question man 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Oh oh! %. me! %. me! i comprehend this one! Gen 16:15-16: Abram has a son named Ishmael Gen 17:5: Abram receives a clean call: Abraham Gen 18: God factors a son to Sarah, Abraham's spouse (Hagar is a concubine) Gen 21 - Isaac is born to Sarah and Abraham and Sarah has Hagar and Ishamael solid out. (don't be too harsh on Sarah, there have been actual safe practices concerns the following because it wasn't uncommon for someone in Ishmael's position to kill a youthful inheritor like Isaac.) This effectively ends Abraham's relationship with both Hagar and Ishmael, legally speaking. Gen 22 - Isaac is the in undemanding words son. So the answer for your question is: a) "Abram" became the daddy of Ishmael and "Abraham" became of Isaac: for that reason "Abraham" had in undemanding words one son b) Ishmael became the son of a concubine and in no way an inheritor c) Ishmael and Hagar were disowned through and legally removed from the family individuals facet be conscious: those that are answering that Ishmael became illegitimate and for that reason no longer an inheritor are incorrect. Ishamel became seen legally the son of Sarai (Sarah previously God replaced her call) as in accordance to Gen 16:2. Ishmael *would* were an inheritor had no longer Isaac been born. besides, such solutions are implementing a twenty first century marriage accepted onto adverse Abraham. Neither of his sons became illegitimate. A concubine turned right into a spouse from the servant type, no longer a "mistress."
2016-11-15 04:22:37
·
answer #2
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Yes and no. They're half-brothers, but Ishmael's mother was a concubine and a slave. even though he was the eldest he was technically in bond-service to Isaac. The descendants would be interrelated, but it was so long ago that most likely very little DNA is inb common between the two groups, as the most stable and traceable form is mitochondrial, which would trace back to the mothers.
2006-06-23 08:31:28
·
answer #3
·
answered by Aingeal 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
I'd say that Jew and Arabs are very close. Linguistically, Hebrew and Arabic are very similar and there is no doubt they stem from the same Semitic language.
I rely upon language so much because it is the most remarkable and informative instrument / art / mechanism / software / archive / organism of . It also can most vividly can tell you everything there is to tell about people who natively speak it. Language is a code and a picture. Language is a mirror and it perfectly reflects every detail and the whole nature of those creating and utilizing it.
P.S. - just a little example of how close Arab and Jews are:
Jesus said to a dead girl when He resurrected her: " Talifa, kumi!"
Which means in Arabic : Rise, child ( female)! Same meaning in Hebrew ( and apparently, Jesus was Jewish).
Also, just take the Biblical names and stories, most of them have similarly sounding equivalents in Arabic.
2006-06-23 17:10:10
·
answer #4
·
answered by 123321m 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Arabs actualy existed prior to Abraham. They would likely have been Dilmunites or Canaanites. The abraham story is just a convienient myth that Mohammed took hold of.
2006-06-23 16:48:54
·
answer #5
·
answered by ryversylt 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
You need to get a public library card, learn about art, music and culture and stop this hate. Become educated. Improve your mind! You will learn that many other religions existed before Christians and continue to this day.
But I suspect this isn't your real problem. You are bitter person who looks towards hate in an attempt to cause pain to others, because you have such little control over your shallow and hollow life. No answer here will make you happy. You need to seek professional help and lift yourself out of your despair.
2006-06-23 07:57:44
·
answer #6
·
answered by jumpingrightin 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
They have the same father but different mothers. Abraham had a concubine, the mother of Ishmael (his eldest son), Abraham's wife's handmaiden Hagar.
2006-06-23 07:53:44
·
answer #7
·
answered by romeo4evernever 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
well if you didnt know we get the term Jews from the tribe of Judah. so yes they would be blood realated
2006-06-23 08:04:37
·
answer #8
·
answered by c.nitram 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
It absolutely does. Kind of makes the hatred and bloodshed between them seem even sillier, doesn't it?
2006-06-23 07:52:53
·
answer #9
·
answered by grammartroll 4
·
1⤊
0⤋
Of course!
2006-06-23 08:04:38
·
answer #10
·
answered by echadone 2
·
0⤊
0⤋