Yes, St. John the Baptist is considered to have been cleansed from sin while in the womb. BV. Mary, who was conceived without sin, had a sinful mother.
But lets get to the heart of your problem. Let's dismantle the idea that "all have sinned".
Rom 3:23: "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God..."
The problem with this is that the word 'ALL' here is the Greek word, 'PAS', which can have different meanings to the absolute that we immediately think of - as shown in other verses of Holy Scripture.
John 12:19, "All the world has gone after him!" Did everyone in the entire world really go after Christ?
Luke 2:1 "And an order went out from Caesar Augustus that ALL the world should be counted."
Was everyone in the whole world counted?
Rom 11:26, "ALL Israel shall be saved." Will everyone in Israel truly be saved?
Now we know that there is a possibility to have a sinless child from a sinful mother and that it is not against scripture to say such.
Secondly, let us point out that Christ's sinlessness doesn't depend on Mary's. Christ is sinless because he is a Divine Person (the Son of the Father and the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity).
It is rather that Mary's sinlessness depends on Christ. She is without sin because it is fitting and proper that the Divine Person of the Son be gestated in a womb that has never been touched by sin.
If it is fitting, is it true? The testimony of the beliefs of historic Christian faith, the oral testimony of the apostles, scripture, Church Fathers, and official teachings of the Church (both east and west) testify to this being a statement of fact. In other words, it is what Christians believe.
However, this NOT something that can be proven through scientific methods for obvious reason (only deductive evidence exists for the statement). Yet the methods that we use to say that Mary was without sin, are the same methods that we use in our judicial system, and the same methods that we use to say that Caesar existed and crossed the Tiber even though such evidence for Caesar being real is much less than the evidence for Mary being without sin.
It is though, a statement of Faith, meaning that its belief is grounded in the teaching of the Holy Spirit who speaks through the Church. It is supported by deductive evidence (which you may believe in and take as truth) but the requirement for belief comes from the Holy Spirit, who teaching and guides us in truth.
2006-06-23 04:22:55
·
answer #1
·
answered by Liet Kynes 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
No matter what religion one looks at, there is a way to ask for forgiveness. There is a reason for this... to put it bluntly, humans screw up.
A newborn child is sinless, however it doesn't lake long before we mess up.
So in answer to your question, not only is it possible, but a fact (for Christians and most other religions).
OK, your added comment just changed the question BIG TIME!
Being a virgin is only part of the issue. There are many other ways to sin! How a woman becomes pregnant, isn't the issue.
As to, "American Christian would no know since the only bible for them is King James", sorry not a fact!!! While the King James is the most popular version, all of the others are here too. Which version a person reads, will depend on how they practice their religion.
Like I was raised Methodist with the King James version, however as an adult I did a bit more reading... and see the King James as an edited version. While current events will cause others to challenge the old way of thinking, I made this decision decades ago.
From what I'm seeing from your questions, you are doing a bit of soul searching. That is good. I started the same path about the age 11, when no one could answer some simple questions. My biggest question at the time was how so many people could say they were Christian, yet believe in different things.
Catholics are allowed to drink and if they sin, just have to go and confess.
Mormons can have more than one wife, but everyone else sees it as a sin.
Southern Baptist see dancing as a sin.
Pentecost women don't wear pants or make up
and the list went on!
No one could give me a answer to this, then came the big question shortly there after. If you aren't a baptized good Christian you go to hell. Yet I was learning in school how other countries had other religions, did that mean that only a hand full of the 'good' Christians would go to heaven and everyone else in the world go to hell? That didn't sound right either.
Now forty years later I'm still amazed at how many people die in war, under the concept of religion.
If you really want some food for though, study other religions. I don't mean change yours, but learn about the others. It won't take long before you find that most overlap, and once you cut though the fluff are very similar.
Most amazing is that the three major ones right now that can't stand each other all share the same roots, and have the similar guidelines for living... Jewish, Christian and Muslim.
Bottom line... there are no simple answeers.
2006-06-23 10:56:46
·
answer #2
·
answered by Robin 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
yes, because sin is passed on from father to child. Christ was conceived by God through the Holy Spirit coming upon Mary, so because his father was sinless, he was.
Rom 5:12 Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned--
Rom 5:13 for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law.
Rom 5:14 Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come.
2006-06-23 10:57:08
·
answer #3
·
answered by WVMagpie 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Actually, people are born with sin. Since, Adam and Eve ate the forbidden fruit, the mark of sin has been on everyone, even children. It's impossible to have a sinless child. People are helplessly born with sinand only the blood of Jesus Christ is the one who can wash those sins away.
2006-06-23 10:50:46
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
This issue of Jesus being born without sin is not due to whether Mary had ever sinned or not. The Catholic and Orthodox religions have created doctrine to say that this is the case but that is not Biblically supported. They have essentially tried to elevate her to being part of the God-head. While I am sure she was a very special woman such elevation is not warranted.
It is a medical fact that the blood of the child is determined by the father (or in this case the Father,) and that is the reason for the importance of the virgin birth. Jesus was not conceived by a sinful human father.
When Adam and Eve sinned they ceased to be perfect as they had been created. They chose to be disobedient to God's one prohibition on them. The sold out their birth-right and took on a sin nature when they did so. They passed their sin nature on to all of their descendants. Like begats like.
If Jesus had been born with the nature of sin in Him, He would not have been the "worthy sacrifice" necessary to pay our sin debt. Likewise, if He had commited sin during His life on Earth, He would have not have continued to be the "worthy sacrifice." When He allowed His life to be taken, it was innocent blood that was shed. He did not carry the taint of sin-guilt to the cross. Instead He willingly took upon Himself all of the sin of all of the world for all of time. He willingly bore our sins and paid our debt once and for all.
All that God asks for you to receive that most amazing gift of all time, is that you acknowledge Him as God, Savior and Lord in your life. You don't have to do good works to get there (how could you ever be good enough, or do enough to deserve what He did for you?) You don't have to make changes before He will receive you. He takes you where you are.
2006-06-23 11:30:26
·
answer #5
·
answered by bigrob 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
When you mean a sinless child I assume you mean a child that has no innate depravity,ie one in whom it is easier to do right than to do wrong. Scripture does not say anywhere that inherited depravity is a function of genetics. It is an enslavement of the spirit because of one's leader (Adam) having surrendered his authority to one who is evil and depraved (Satan).Therefore, since the physical condition of the woman's body is not at issue here, it is possible for a "sinful mother" to have a sinless child. I hope this is not too complicated.
2006-06-23 11:03:29
·
answer #6
·
answered by Broadcaster 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
1)God can do whatever he want. It comes with the territory of being God.
2)All children are born sinless. Most mothers, if not all, are sinful.
3)Anything that has already happened is possible.
2006-06-23 10:56:40
·
answer #7
·
answered by Ethslan 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
Yes. Jesus was created without sin inside a womb of a sinful virgin.
2006-06-23 10:50:49
·
answer #8
·
answered by behindthemoment 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
We believe that men will be punished for their own sins, and not for Adam’s transgression. A transgression is different than a sin...Adam cannot sin without knowledge of the sin...it is somewhat of a catch 22...YES he was told...but he DID NOT have the knowledge yet of what is right and wrong..THAT was the point of taking of the fruit of the tree of rightesouness. "Upon taking the fruit his eyes were opened."
Gen 3:5-7
5For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil.
6 And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat, and gave also unto her husband with her; and he did eat.
7 And the eyes of them both were opened, and they knew that they were naked; and they sewed fig leaves together, and made themselves aprons.
The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his down sin. -Deuteronomy 24:16
The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.-Ezequiel 18:20
sin:an offense against religious or moral law
in order to offend a religious or moral law...you must be of an age in which you can be held accountable, know what is right from wrong and know how you are offending said religious or moral law.
2006-06-23 11:12:06
·
answer #9
·
answered by juanes addicion 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
According to the Catholic Church, Mary was a sinless child from a sinfull mother.
2006-06-23 10:49:58
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋