I'm not a native speaker of English, and I've learnt that both expressions are totally interchangeable, but I've seen that when people want to be more emphatic, they use "nothing", rather than "not...anything", or "nowhere" rather than "not...anywhere", or "nobody", rather than "not...anybody", etc. Is that true?
And also, is "She's not married" more emphatic than "She isn't married"? Or are those just my assumptions?
2006-06-22
16:27:48
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11 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Languages
Your assumptions are true and I respect you for wishing, not only to learn our language, but it's subtleties as well. Compared to many others. English is not an easy language to master. We have many regional differences and accents, though this is true with some other languages too. The Spanish I learned in school (way too many years ago) is sure not the Mexican Spanish spoken on many of our streets today, for example.
2006-06-22 16:39:21
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answer #1
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answered by Dusty 7
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Hi, ed. I don't think there's a difference in emphasis, exactly, more like a difference in what us syntacticians would call "scope". It's very difficult for me to get this judgment on the sentence level, but I'll think about it and get back to you if I think of anything more.
In the second example, "She's not married" probably is more emphatic than "She isn't married", simply because the negator is more visible. Especially if you stress "not".
2006-06-23 05:35:39
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answer #2
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answered by drshorty 7
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You're right about the "nothing" and "not...anything" expressions. The former is more dramatic. About the "she's not married" that totally depends on voice inflection. But way to go with your English. Its great.
2006-06-23 02:42:01
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answer #3
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answered by angelsamorcito 2
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Generally, it seems the fewer contractions you use the more emphasis a sentence will have. "She is not married" would be more emphatic than either of your sentences above.
Also, "I know nothing" is more emphatic because not only are there no contractions, but it has fewer words as well.
2006-06-22 16:36:20
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answer #4
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answered by joe 5
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"I know nothing" can be more emphatic than "I don't know anything," though I'd say they are interchangeable. It depends on the context.
"She's not married" and "She isn't married" are the same.
2006-06-22 16:30:11
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answer #5
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answered by cucumberlarry1 6
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It depends on the speakers inflections...all your examples are inerchangable...some are not correct as far as grammar.
"I know nothing" can sound like an excuse at times.
English is tough to learn...and tougher to speak :)
2006-06-22 16:31:33
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answer #6
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answered by jaydragon0 2
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It matters in what context you are using, but if you put them in a sentence you will see that one form is guttural speech. The other is "proper English" Not is a very non-empathetic word by itself.
2006-06-22 16:47:25
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answer #7
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answered by Teacher 6
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2016-10-31 08:14:26
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answer #8
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answered by sikorski 4
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Nothing is referred to everything that I don't know, emphatically.
Anything is referred to something in particular.
Do you know what I mean?
2006-06-22 16:46:49
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answer #9
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answered by Tudor_ 22 5
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Yes, you are correct. Btw, your English is really good.
2006-06-23 00:00:49
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answer #10
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answered by Dolores G. Llamas 6
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