say the story of the garden of eden, why is it, assuming there were only a few people, ok to incest but not ok to fornicate?
in other words, why did any of them, cain, able, etc. have to 'marry'? And why isn't the sin of fornication or immodesty in any commandments? and if specific commandments or deadly sins don't matter, why did God make such a fuss with Moses in the first place?
2006-06-22
12:34:03
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5 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
no no flowerchild,
the bible is specific when it says "do not covet thy neighbor's GOODS"
AND
"thou shall not COVET THY NEIGHBORS WIFE"
says nothing about fornication, only illuding to cheating or being jealous of your fellow neighbor.
2006-06-22
12:59:34 ·
update #1
....first you have to know what the word COVET means
2006-06-22
13:00:34 ·
update #2
...also wonders if dewcoons knows that MEN AND WOMEN ALWAYS HAVE DIFFERENT GENES , your argument is illogical because when you procreate, THAT DNA IS THE SAME AND TOO CLOSELY RELATED BECAUSE THEY ARE BROTHERS AND SISTERS. It would not matter if Adam and Eve were different because they are the same model for all of us! 23 chromosomes each to make a whole of 46!!
If your argument were to make sense, you would have to say that God himself created them all differently with different gene pools in order for there to be no "birth defects' bla bla bla.
But since that's not true, that they gave BIRTH to brothers and sisters....the same rule applies as it does today!!!!
2006-06-22
13:06:25 ·
update #3