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When the warlike Arabic tribe the Berbers,invaded Spain in 711 A.D. they stayed for 700 years.During this time,there may have been some mingling.As we know,the hispanics derive from Spain.What do you think?Are there Hispanarabs?

2006-06-22 11:37:02 · 12 answers · asked by getnabargain 2 in Politics & Government Immigration

711+700=1400. 1400+606=2006 606 Years!

2006-06-22 11:48:58 · update #1

Come on people! 700 years in the same country and no sexual contact?Were they all gay?

2006-06-22 11:58:08 · update #2

12 answers

How can anyone say that a group of invaders "never" mixed with the conquered??? that is about the stupidest thing i've ever seen. Yes, Arab culture is part of spain, morrocco, italy, ethiopia, sudan, etc. Arabs were everywhere! and yes they had sex with the people they conquered. That is one way to assert your power over a people. Next, people will be saying that slaveowners never screwed their slaves and produced mixed kids! get real!

2006-06-22 14:25:34 · answer #1 · answered by afrochocobbw 3 · 3 2

Well, from 711 A.D. most of the Arabic bloodline got lost along the way. Native Spaniards never mixed with the Aztecs, it was the Criollo, Spaniards born in la Nueva España (Mexico), whom mixed with the indigenous people and therefore were called mestizos. When the French invaded Mexico, their soldiers spewed around some of their genes among the mestizos too. However this wasn't enough to really make a difference in the features of the majority of the population that now is present. The mestizo conforms the majority of the country. Only a DNA test could really define if some Arab gene is still present, but it would be unlikely because of the time elapsed.

2006-06-22 14:14:00 · answer #2 · answered by diehard0603 4 · 0 0

No, not really. Hispanics today are the genetic mixture of the Spanish invaders and the native peoples who were invaded. People from Spain are more European-looking, often having blond hair, and are slightly taller and stuff. The indiginous people who lived in what is now Latin America were dark-skinned and short.
The Spanish who invaded South & Central America behaved differently than their Nothern Eurpean counterparts who settled the US. The Spainards spent more time & energy ******' the natives, while the Nothern Europeans seemed only intent on trying to commit genocide on the Native Americans. They were, after all, puritians, to whom sexual congress is a major sin, but genocide... not a big deal...
In Latin America, this combination of European & Native genes continues today. One thing you'll notice in Mexico is that the richer classes tend to be more "white" in appearance, and probably have less "Indian" in their genes. The poorer classes tend to be darker, and shorter, and have facial features similar to the pre-columbian Natives.
Enjoy!

2006-06-22 11:48:16 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes, I've heard that - but if you ever meet an Iranian, he will tell you civilization started there - but if you ask a black based on what his teaching tells you - he will tell you Africa.

My teaching taught me Egypt - the world's first famous person was Moses - and not from the Bible, from a World History book.

On a side note, some ditzy chick tried to tell me that when the Mexicans came over they didn't wipe out the Aztechs the Spanish did. That's like saying that American's didn't start fighting the Indians, England, France, and Spain did.

2006-06-22 12:41:39 · answer #4 · answered by yars232c 6 · 0 0

This is another biased version of history we are taught in the USA. When the Arabs ruled Spain, they were peaceful,intelligent, and successful in contributing to the Spanish culture in many positive ways(architecture,language,food,etc.). When those inbred monarchs took over (Fernando and Isabella) that was the beginning of the problems. History can tell you that. And to answer your question, it's a possibility some Spaniards may have some Arab blood. Just like they could have French,Italian,Visigoth,Hapsburg (these are some other conquerers of Spain) etc.

2006-06-22 11:53:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Possibly, but remember, its possible that there are hispanics that have little or no Spanish blood. There are even regions in Spain that had little contact with the Moors.

In any case, between the mingling of Spanish, Indian, French, African, Caucasion and other genes, any traces of Arab geneology can get pretty small.

2006-06-22 11:47:34 · answer #6 · answered by Vince M 7 · 0 0

dullness added indians and doesnt remeber El Cid Spain was almost entirely taken at the tme of the rise of Catherine of Aragon and her and her Kingly concort repulsed and decimated the arabs who as you point out are berbers and black for the most part in arabian society theres degrees of color in a rising peak of purity from the arabs of the arabian sea and cosanguity to the prophet so leaders and doctors and teachers traveled spain and the trade routes of the slavers across north africa and north and south in africa and brough more blacks to be sold and traded and also since the religion followed the trade routes they were on the steppes of russia and the western silk road to china and india and burma and so on after the fall of the romans the moslems almost conquored all of eastern europe and if not for warrior societies like the tuetonic league and the folks in romany and transylvania we would all be speaking and writing in arabic

2006-06-22 11:50:05 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Can anyone really be considered that after 1300 years?
Sure they might have Arab ancestry somewhere, but I would not go so far as to say they are hispanarabs.

2006-06-22 11:43:14 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

No. The Arabs stomped the tar out of the Spaniards until El Cid kicked their sorry butts out of Spain.

2016-05-20 12:14:12 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes Arabs are part of the mixture down there along with just about everything else.

2006-06-22 12:51:59 · answer #10 · answered by Leifr Eiríksson 2 · 1 0

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