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Please don't give me words using "ñ" because I know most of the words. What I have never understood is the rule for USING the "Ñ"... when to use it and how to use it properly.... I have pretty well managed to master the punctuation and accent marks in Spanish, but this one has eluded me and, what's worse, when I've asked this same question in a Spanish class or three, the teachers couldn't tell me, so they didn't know either.

There have been a few times (OK... MORE then a few)... when I have made a fool of myself (easy for me to do, anyway) by insisting a word should be spelled with "ñ" only to find out that it was spelled with a regular, "N" like they use in Inglaterra.

PLEASE no flames... this is a serious question and I would appreciate a serious reply. Thank you.

2006-06-22 05:07:49 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

Thanks for all the answers but nobody really ANSWERED my question. I KNOW the difference in sound I KNOW how to use Ñ. but what I WANT to know is, HOW do I determine WHEN to use "Ñ"... why is the "Ñ" used instead of "N"..

In other words, if I have never seen the word before and it lacks any accent marks, how do I know if I should use "N" or "Ñ".

If I have learned anything from studying Spanish for the past 4 years, it's that a good reason exists for every exclamation and accent mark, so I'm sure there is a REASON for the tilde over the "N"... and that, is that reason that I am looking for..., in other words why are some words given the "enn" sound and some words given the "enyaa" sound.

I hope this clarifies the question. Thanks

2006-06-22 08:27:01 · update #1

Because of the many literate answers, I think I was pointed to the answer albeit nobody actually answered the question. Let's see what you think.

Historically speaking, the best I can determine, the "Ñ" didn't show up in the Spanish language until after the discovery of the new world and it showed up in Castillian Spanish first.

Spanish has always added words from those cultures it ruled and added some words for which there was no equivalent in Spanish.

There are very few words that begin with Ñ and most of them have something to do with humans or the needs of humans. Ñ does not appear in Latin, it's strictly Spanish in origin.

I'm starting to suspect the Ñ crept into Spanish because of Mayan or Aztec influence and was used in dispatches to differentiate between the Spanish and the natives. Note the words ñudo and nudo/da for example. Also, Ñ is used as a combining form to denote some human action or activity.

What do you think? Do we need another question?

2006-06-24 11:33:20 · update #2

6 answers

N and Ñ are two entirely different letters, with entirely different sounds. N sounds as in English, but Ñ sounds like NY in canyon, or NI in onion. Also, "new" (British pron.) sounds like "ñu" to us, Spanish speakers. It's like N and Y spoken together. So it would depend on what you want to say.

ADDED LATER:

I'm afraid there is no such rule as the one you're asking for. Of course if you know how to pronounce the word, you'll know which letter to use, and reversely, if you know how to spell it, you'll know how to read it. But if you don't have a clue, and you want to predict from the original English word, which one you will have to use, I'm afraid there is nothing you can do to know which letter is required in each specific case. You know for us, N and Ñ are not just as A and Á (i.e.: a letter with or without accent). We take N and Ñ to be two independent letters, just as M and R, to say any example. So, knowing which one to use of these two has never been an issue. They are two different letters, and each has a place. And you don't wonder, in English, why is it that "month" is spelt with an M rather than with an R. They are two independent letters.

2006-06-22 05:12:06 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

As others have indicated, this is not a matter of grammar, but spelling. The "n" and "ñ" are distinct letters, and you just have to learn which words use which one. In fact, there are several examples of words that differ only by the tilde, e.g. ano/año (don't mess that one up or you WILL be embarrased), sonar/soñar, etc.

Sorry I can't give you an easy rule, but that's the way language works. Good luck!

2006-06-22 08:17:24 · answer #2 · answered by kslnet 3 · 3 0

There should be no confusion, as "n" and "ñ" are two completely different letters that represent two completely different sounds.
The letter N has the same sound as in English. The letter "ñ" has the same sound as the French or Italian "gn" (lasagna). So there are really no rules as to when to use n and when to use ñ because they are completely different. Just think of the sound and use them accordingly.

2006-06-22 08:13:31 · answer #3 · answered by Belindita 5 · 2 0

There is no rule, because these sounds represent different phonemes in Spanish. In other words, you have to learn which sound is part of the word.

For example: "doña" is a term of address for a woman
"dona" is a doughnut.

You just have to know which word you are saying.

2006-06-22 13:47:52 · answer #4 · answered by drshorty 7 · 2 0

It's *exactly* the same as the rule for when to use "n" or "m" in English. When a word has an "ñ" sound in it, you use an "ñ". When it has an "n" sound in it, you use an "n". When a word has an "m" sound, you use an "m".

2006-06-22 05:39:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

There really isn't a law or rule. They need to be treated as two separate letters. They are two separate letters in the alphabet, just as "l" and "ll," and need to be treated as such. It would be like mixing up "pero (but)" and "perro (dog)." There is no rule. That's just the way they are spelled.

2006-06-22 05:25:28 · answer #6 · answered by cagrwn 2 · 1 0

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