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I have a Spanish audio program and on it, I initially learned "ir," the verb for "to go." My current stage in the program, however, introduced "yo me voy," in which the speaker translates into "I, myself, am going." I still don't get it though! What's the difference? If I say "yo voy al hotel", that means "I'm going to the hotel." So if one says "yo ME voy al hotel", doesn't that mean the same thing; That you're going to the hotel. Perhaps I've misunderstood something, who knows, nevertheless, could someone please help me out and let me know if there's a major difference and/or a proper usage/ context/ time of the term(s). Thank You.

2006-06-21 11:29:38 · 13 answers · asked by Jay H 2 in Society & Culture Languages

13 answers

In the strictest sense. IRSE (me voy, nos vamos) means "to leave" or "to go away" and often will NOT have a destination mentioned.
Ex: Adiós, ya me voy. = Bye, I am leaving.
"Vete de aquí"(the vete is two words "ve" and "te" run together) means "Go away!" (Lit. "Leave from here")
Vámonos (again two words written as one 'vamos' and 'nos' means "Let's go (away)" (Let's leave), but the question "¿Nos vamos?" is "¿Are we leaving?"

IR (voy, vamos) means "to go" and will almost always have a destination.

But, the two expressions are frequently interchanged. Don't sweat it.

Another picky point of usage, if you use just "voy" you should say "a" to indicate the destination. "Voy A la playa." "I am going to the beach." If you say "ME voy", most people use 'para' to indicate the destination. "ME voy PARA la playa." "I am leaving FOR the beach." Again, not everybody follows that practice, but it is the most common.

2006-06-28 03:07:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

The correct use is:
yo voy (a algún lado) = I'm going (somewhere)
yo me voy = I'm leaving

But when you say "yo me voy (a algún lado)" it's the same as in the first sentence, just a common use that became accepted.

2006-06-21 20:43:20 · answer #2 · answered by Oona 3 · 1 0

Interesting questions. I do see a difference between a true working dog and a pet. A working dog is more likely to live outside in a kennel, or with the sheep. A pet dog is more likely to live in the house with the family and sleep in the owner's bed. A working dog will have been trained to do a job from an early age, while a pet dog is trained in obedience and good house manners only in most cases (if the owner is a good owner!) A working dog is more likely to not be house trained or socialized, as this may not be a requirement of the job the dog does, and may in fact be a detriment in some cases. A pet dog does not really have a job beyond being a pet unless the owner chooses to exercise that option with the dog. I do not consider basic obedience to be a job, it is just a necessity. However, I happen to think an owner who does not give a pet dog an outlet for the breed traits will end up with a dog who has troubles. This is one of the main reasons for dogs dumped in shelters. And many of them are the working breeds. The owners did not find ways to satisfy the working drive, and the dogs became nuisances. So they may not have jobs, but most of them need jobs to keep them happy and well-balanced. I do not believe that it is a matter of drive. True, most people who are out looking for a good working dog will look for particular lines and breeders who advertise and guarantee this, but breed traits are breed traits, whether the dog is badly bred or not. My pet ACD has a wicked herding drive. My Minpins are expert killers. My Sheltie took on the roll of guard dog before she was 2. If I did not participate and encourage my dogs to be the dogs they were bred to be, I would have difficulty with their behaviors, because they would be bored and dissatisfied. Every winter we have cases of "cabin fever" in my house. We had to finish off our sub basement as an exercise/training room for the dogs, so we could continue to give them what they need when the weather is too bad to go out. As a summary of the three answers, I think it is more a matter of how the owner trains and treats the dog, than whether it is a working dog or a pet dog. What do you expect out of your dog?

2016-03-15 14:37:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You are right that they are used in different ways. However, you got a bad translation.

Voy and vamos could be translated as simply "to go".

Me voy and nos vamos could be translated as "leave" or "get out of here".

For example:
Yo voy a la escuela every day. "I go to school every day."
Yo me voy. "I'm leaving. (See you later.)"
Vamos. "Let's go."
Vamonos "Let's get out of here. Let's get going!"

When you get to the part where they teach you reflexive verbs you'll remember this.

2006-06-22 14:04:42 · answer #4 · answered by drshorty 7 · 0 0

first of this is a great question. OK yo voy means i go
yo me voy i myself go so your really just repeating you self exaggerating

no vamos is the themselves go same thing i think its just stronger but i have never used me in front of vamos but
me,te,le,la,les,las
are all direct object k i hoped i helped

2006-06-21 11:41:12 · answer #5 · answered by dncrgal55 2 · 0 0

"yo voy" usualy uses to indicates a recurence to a place. Like "yo voy a la iglesia" wouldn't mean "i am going to the church" 'cause it'll indicate that you made it once [like i am gonna go to the church]. But if you're going to a place that you don't usually then it indicates you are going like to the dentist [like: ahora yo voy al dentista].

"Yo me voy" is like the second that i mentioned [like yo me voy a la playa] but is not equal cause it indicates that you don't do it often.

Y "nosotros nos vamos" indicates that you're going to a place wich you don't go usually [like nosotros nos vamos a la playa].

"Nosotros vamos" is like "yo voy" but in plural.

There's not a big difference in "yo voy to yo me voy" or "nosotros nos vamos to nosotros vamos". But like i said the first indicates a recurrance.

2006-06-21 14:50:32 · answer #6 · answered by Maaka 4 · 0 0

Its different expression with the same meaning, u can also say

me voy al hotel
voy al hotel
ya me voy al hotel

2006-06-21 11:34:47 · answer #7 · answered by Finy 6 · 0 0

actually when you use ''yo me....'' you're using that expression to emphasize that you're the one leaving for some reason, when you use the pronoun followed by a possesive you're basically sayin i'm doing this in order to other people to hear me and that there's a reason why i'm doing it, but i won't tell you....but it also depends in the tone of the person, i mean it's mainly a feeling of annoyance in the person who express this tought.

2006-06-21 19:21:39 · answer #8 · answered by pablo_dmc 3 · 0 0

I was wondering much the same thing

2016-08-23 00:17:53 · answer #9 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I was curious on the answer to this question too

2016-09-19 13:01:12 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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