MANKIND ADAM
We all have read about Cain and Abel (Gen.4:8-17)
How Cain slew Abel, and God cursed Cain and drove him out.
Then Cain said (Gen.4:14) “that every one that findeth me shall slay me”
Who is Cain worried about?
Then in (Gen.4:17) And Cain knew his wife
Where did Cain find a wife?
The answer is in the Hebrew text (Gen.1:26 and Gen.2:7).
Gen.1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image,
after our likeness: ….
The word “man” (Gen.1:26)
in Hebrew text looks like this ( אדם )
with no article means “MANKIND”
The word “man” (Gen.1:26) transliterated is (adam).
Gen.2:7 And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, ….
The word “man” (Gen.2:7)
in Hebrew text looks like this ( את־האדם )
with article and particle means “THIS SAME MAN ADAM”.
The word “man” (Gen.2:7) transliterated is (eth-Ha adham).
So on the sixth day God created or made MANKIND.
On the eighth day God formed THIS SAME MAN ADAM.
2006-06-21 00:07:02
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Often, apparent inconsistencies can be resolved if we just look at the context. Consider, for example, the often-raised problem about Cain’s wife. As is well known, Cain killed Abel; but after that, we read that Cain had a wife and children. (Genesis 4:17) If Adam and Eve had only two sons, where did Cain find his wife?
Where did Cain get his wife? Is there a logical Bible answer?
Yes, there is. It is pointed to in the very instructions given to Adam and Eve shortly after their creation, namely: “Be fruitful and become many and fill the earth and subdue it.”—Gen. 1:28.
Obedience to this command would require that Adam and Eve have children. Then these children, in turn, would marry and bear children. This process of reproduction by succeeding generations would need to continue in order to fill the earth in harmony with God’s purpose.
The solution lies in the fact that Adam and Eve had more than two children. According to the context, they had a large family. At Genesis 5:3 we read that Adam became father to another son named Seth and then, in the following verse, we read: “He became father to sons and daughters.” (Genesis 5:4) So Cain could have married one of his sisters or even one of his nieces.
At that early stage of human history, when mankind was so close to perfection, such a marriage evidently did not pose the risks for the children of the union that it would today.
It is probable that, while yet alive, Abel had sisters; the record mentions the birth of daughters to his parents, but their names are not recorded. (Ge 5:1-4)
Cain went into banishment in “the land of Fugitiveness to the east of Eden,” taking with him his wife, an anonymous daughter of Adam and Eve. (Ge 4:16, 17; compare 5:4, also the much later example of Abraham’s marriage to his half sister Sarah, Ge 20:12.)
2006-06-21 00:25:07
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answer #2
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answered by BJ 7
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The Bible said that Adam and Eve had other children. Cain's wife was one of the other children. So Cain married his sister. However back then it was all right to marry within the family.
2006-06-21 00:07:56
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answer #3
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answered by potatochip 7
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Cain's wife was one of Adam & Eve's children or the children's descendants. Because Adam & Eve & their children were so close to the perfection of humanity there was no reason brother & sister could not marry. (there are several accounts in Scripture pertaining to this kind of event occuring) And in 900 years I am sure that Adam & Eve & their children most likely did the best they could at fulfilling God's commandment" to be fruitful & multiply.
2006-06-21 00:11:11
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answer #4
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answered by maranatha132 5
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After he begot Seth, the days of Adam were eight hundred years; and he had sons and daughters.Genesis 5:4..at this time one could marry their siblings..When you read through Genesis, you'll notice the writer only follows one line (i.e. genealogy). Starting with Adam, we follow the line, but numerous times the line splits when individuals forfeit the purpose of God. The line that forfeits the purpose is not mentioned again. The line that is followed is the faithful "family" that carries out the plan of God and eventually ends at Jesus Christ (see Matthew chapter 1).
2006-06-22 21:29:16
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answer #5
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answered by dandaman 3
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There were other gods on the earth at this time. The word used for god in the first book of the bible was a plural word. This is also why god told the Jews to have no other god before him. He created them, other people were created by other gods. He was a jealous god, and wanted them to not worship anyone but him. He did not say, no other gods exist, He said, no other god before me. In the time of egypt, Mosses did magic battle with Pharohs wisemen. Magic against magic, staffs and snakes and such. It was not said, they have no magic, it was said Mosses magic was more powerful.
2006-06-21 03:38:03
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answer #6
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answered by Arcturus R 3
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Either it was an adulterous marriage OR God created more couples than just Adam and Eve OR she was an alien.
2006-06-21 06:56:30
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answer #7
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answered by Gevera Bert 6
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Check resolved questions.If you had paid any attention when you typed this question,you would have noticed it is one of the most asked questions ever.
2006-06-21 00:11:51
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answer #8
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answered by Tommy G. 5
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