English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-06-20 02:23:34 · 23 answers · asked by calypso98us 1 in Science & Mathematics Medicine

23 answers

It depends on how good the sex is!!!

2006-06-20 02:32:59 · answer #1 · answered by Hill's Wifey 2 · 0 0

Well I'm gonna pose a question... why do you want to know this? Reading some of the responses I can see that people have very passionate opinions on the subject of female ejaculation and some don't feel that it exists. Well ejaculation and orgasm are two different terms that I feel should not be interchanged. As far as the milky fluid that emerges during 'female ejaculation', it is alleged to have a composition similar to the fluid generated in males by the prostate gland. Although many women will tell you this is not possible and many women can't I have witnessed both the milky and the clear ejaculate. According to some sources, forceful orgasms with clear liquids are actually instances of urinary incontinence that occur with orgasm. The physiological reason for such reactions is a composite of the relaxation effects of an orgasm as well as high stress on the bladder resulting from the need to urinate. I saw a stripper once 'ejaculate' the clear fluid 9 times in 60 minutes and ruined a nice rug and got some on the 9 1/2 foot tall ceiling. I will also note that she was drinking copious amounts of water but after the show she insisted that it was ejaculated and was sticky (I took her word for it and left the clean up to others). When all is said and done I think that you should worry less about countless and explosive orgasms and just makin sweet love.

2006-06-20 07:01:52 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

5

2006-06-26 09:45:26 · answer #3 · answered by brad r 2 · 0 0

5

2006-06-20 02:28:23 · answer #4 · answered by deputyrodriguez 1 · 0 0

There's a difference between an orgasm and ejaculation. A woman can orgasm numerous times, that all depends on the amount of stimulation. Some women do "ejaculate" although not like a man, and I do not mean urine either.

2006-06-20 06:16:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

A man can't last past three woman ejaculations without ejaculating himself about 15 times, because the womans is so prolonged. If there was a penis that rubber the cliterous, and the vaginal lips, that would totally be a different question!!!

2006-06-20 02:52:14 · answer #6 · answered by Organ Phantom 1 · 0 0

The concept is still under study.

Women put out natural lubricant during the entire process of arousal and stimulation.

Exactly what is being ejaculated? It has to be a different substance and urine doesn't count. Boys "ejaculate" urine prior to generating semen. Once boys produce semen their "ejaculation" changes from a burst of urine (at the release of muscular tension) to an ejacuation of semen, followed by an intense desire to urinate. Guys always have to urinate within 30 minutes of semen ejacuation, probalby to "purge" the system.

If we take the motif of Dr. Shifferly, that the clitorus in a woman develops into the penus in a man and that this is the "sensative" area of the general vulva (remember, however, the urethra has moved from being within the "penus/clitorus" to above it), when what is the ejacuation element from the urethra?

What is the ejacuation element from the vagina?

If it is simply a massive burst of female lubrication does it count? If it happens as a result of orgasm, possible it does!

Since women do have multiple orgasms maybe it's true.

Men have generally single or dual orgams. The primary semen ejactulation followed, sometimes and in some men, by a secondary one (in short, a guy can pumpt it a little more after the first ejaculation and get a bit more out a moment or two later).

We first have to define ejaculation. It is a separate substance, and if so can science find this and quanitify it from a woman?

It is simply a stored up reserve that is expelled at orgasm?

Most women still don't understand orgams, not like a man.

There has been talk of clitorial orgams and "g spot" orgasm.

Orgasm, by male defintions, is that point where release occurs and softening of the erection is automatic.

Softening without release may not necessarily be considered orgams in the male (e.g. when a man has sex for the fifth or sixth time in a given day and simply has no semen left to "ejaculate" because production has not kept up with demand).

All of these terms have yet to be definatively definted.

The average girl puts out a good glass full of "female" lubricant (similar to saliva in the mouth), during oral and/or digital stimualtion.

The average girls knows her underwear can get soaked just by being around a man who turns her on. That's a lot of liquid to make a normal size pair of cotton panties totally wet.

The terms of what constitutes an "ejacuation" have to be defined.

A man puts out a good ounce or two of "stuff" in one fell swoop. Has science ever observed this and photographed this from a woman? Has a woman eveyr "streamed" something that wasn't urine?

Now, does a short burst of urine constitute "ejacuation" based upon male starting points? Possible... If you can stimulate a woman to the point where she orgasms and looses bladder control for a breif moment this can be equated to a 10 or 11 year old boy discovering how his erection works, prior to his ability to produce semen and switch from one passage way to another.

Get the drift?

I know, personally, when a woman orgasms because she doesn't want anymore of anything. A man is the same way and men love sex. When a man say, stop, it's done, I don't need anymore (at lest for another 60 minutes) you KNOW he's "come" and when a woman stops you and freaks out and is sweaty you know she's had her fill.

But, is there an "ejaculation?"

That still has yet to be scientifically proven.

I have never seen a woman put out a stream from her vagina. Not a stream. Not even a dribble. It's just soaking wet, coming out of the skin porses like sweat. It's a lubrication process done to make entry easier for both.

Ejaculation implies a "stream" of "something" at "some point" through "some place."

This is not meant to imply inferiority. Women many simply not be "designed" to ejaculation or science hasn't yet observed and documented it.

It doesn't mean you're abnormal. It means it's the difference between women and men.

Women are designed to lubricate, expand and accomodate (the entry).

Men ejaculate to impregnate.

In lower animals, a female in heat is naturally wide and drips from expelled lubrication.

In humans, this only happens occasionally during the "discovery" process. After you have a long established relationship it takes "work" to get a woman loose and wet. Even then, if she doesn't want or desire the attention she'll stay tight and dry. If a woman is receptive, it is generally up to the man and "foreplay" to get her up to speed. That is the way humans seem to do it, from our limited knowledge...

It's that simple.

That is the design of "things" and if women also ejacuation that doesn't mean the design is different or wrong, it just means we haven't observed it. And if women don't ejaculate it doesn't mean they're weird or abnormal, it just means it wasn't meant to be! Don't worry about it. Worry more about getting a man to "give you" what YOU need, because with him it's easy! He just needs to be inside you for a few minutes! If you NEED more, GET him to do more (and most men will be GLAD to accomodate if it means fooling around with you for another hour or two). That don't mean bad sex, it just means difference responses to the sexual process as NATURE declared.

2006-06-20 05:47:18 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I think that a woman can ejaculate lots of times.

2006-06-20 02:25:52 · answer #8 · answered by Shay 2 · 0 0

have to agree with celticwoman777 women dont ejaculate only men, men and women have totally different glands that make the "stuff" come out its a different process for both .

2006-06-20 03:41:27 · answer #9 · answered by isthisthingon79 3 · 0 0

women ejaculate? i thought they just had orgasms. if that is what you mean, than the answer is as many times as the person they are with can give them one.

2006-06-20 04:12:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Men ejaculate, women have orgasms, so the answer is 0.

2006-06-20 04:10:11 · answer #11 · answered by sleepingbeauty123 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers