As to English sentences, which is correct?

Question

What's the difference?

#1 He has been dead for five years.
#2 He has died for five years.

Answer 1

#1 is the correct one. Its past perfect verb tense. #2 sounds like he has been dying for five years but isnt finished yet, however, the correct way to say that would be "He has been dying for five years." which is past continuous tense.

The example provided by abhas is simple past tense which is also fine.

Answer 2

#1 is correct. #1 is a Past Participle. You can correct #2 by writing, "He died five years ago." The difference between #1 and corrected #2 is that #1 uses the helping verb, forms of have, do, and be. #2 corrected is simply in past tense.

Answer 3

question no.1 is correct. while in question no.2 once a person has died, he is dead, and cannot die for five years. Sentence is incomplete.

Answer 4

#1 is correct. "He has died for five years" would imply continuous action, for example "He has lived in Arizona for five years." But once you're dead, you're DEAD! ... no more action! So: he has been dead for five years.

Answer 5

#2 means that he had died for 5 years and implies will wake up after those five years haha

Answer 6

#1 He has been dead for five years.

OR you can say: he died five years ago.

Answer 7

He has been dead for five years. Or you could say, "He died five years ago."

Answer 8

Several have indicated the grammatical rationale for selecting between the forms you provided.

Indeed, it matters very much what you intend to convey; for instance, according to the Christian myth, Paul died daily -- and yet his remains await their first physical resurrection from death.

However, excepting philosophical contextual constructs, most people likely regard Illustration #2 as nonsensical.

Eliminating "for" from Illustration #1 would further streamline that example of the more commonly-accepted form.

Answer 9

#1

Answer 10

#1