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Why is there such a glaring discrepancy in what people believe so faithfully in ???

2006-06-19 04:15:46 · 13 answers · asked by Furibundus 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

13 answers

Regarding the morning of Jesus’ trial and appearance before Pilate, which was in the morning period of Nisan 14 (the Passover day having begun the evening before), John 19:14 says: “Now it was preparation of the passover.” (NW, KJ, Da) Some commentators have understood this to mean “preparation for the passover,” and certain translations so render the verse. (AT, We, CC) This, though, suggests that the Passover had not yet been celebrated, whereas the Gospel accounts explicitly show that Jesus and the apostles had celebrated it the night before. (Luke 22:15; Matthew 26:18-20; Mark 14:14-17) Christ perfectly carried out the regulations of the Law, including the requirement to celebrate the Passover on Nisan 14. (Ex. 12:6; Leviticus 23:5; see PASSOVER.) The day of Jesus’ trial and death could be viewed as the “preparation of the passover” in the sense that it was the preparation for the seven-day Festival of Unfermented Cakes that began the next day. Because of their closeness on the calendar, the entire festival itself was often included in the term “Passover.” And the day after Nisan 14 was always a Sabbath; additionally, in 33 C.E., Nisan 15 fell on the regular Sabbath, making the day a “great” or double Sabbath.

If you would like further information, please contact Jehovah's Witnesses at the local Kingdom Hall. Or visit http://www.watchtower.org

2006-06-19 04:57:54 · answer #1 · answered by Jeremy Callahan 4 · 0 0

Mark 15:37-43 And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost. And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom. And when the centurion, which stood over against him, saw that he so cried out, and gave up the ghost, he said, Truly this man was the Son of God. There were also women looking on afar off: among whom was Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James the less and of Joses, and Salome; (Who also, when he was in Galilee, followed him, and ministered unto him;) and many other women which came up with him unto Jerusalem. And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath, Joseph of Arimathaea, an honourable counsellor, which also waited for the kingdom of God, came, and went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus.

John 19:30-33 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him. But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs:

According to Mark and John, Jesus was crucified and died the day before the sabbath. There is no discrepancy to be found. Understanding the passover, the preparation and the sabbath days will help you understand why Jesus was crucified BEFORE the sabbath. I have listed some links that might help.

2006-06-19 04:55:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus did no longer eat passover, Jesus ate the banquet of unleavened bread with the 12 which replaced good right into a 2 day journey beginning up up the Wednesday till now passover which replaced good right into a 7 day journey. Jesus died the day of coaching that Thursday, no longer on Friday with the aid of actuality the church homes have reported you. Mark replaced good right into a disciple of Peter and Paul, no longer Jesus. Mark does not even factor out the regulations given by making use of making use of Jesus interior the Sermon on the Mount, and Mark is the only author that announces the Apostle ought to talk in tongues. The day that Jesus gave the Holy Ghost as written in Acts (Acts of the Apostle, attempting to be great) is a lie, John 20:a million-19 components the truly day that Jesus gave the Holy Ghost to the worldwide and it replaced into the comparable Sunday Jesus rose from the ineffective. (John 20:17-23). .

2016-10-31 03:13:31 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

From what I learned in class, Mark is a unique gospel - it even ends when Jesus died and everyone was afraid. The rest was known to be addition. My teacher also told me that Mark was the most mysterious among all disciples.
I don't know how the people who put the bible together vote on which book make it and which book don't, but well, I still think the main story is what's matter, not the tiny details such as when and where...

2006-06-19 04:20:23 · answer #4 · answered by meetha 4 · 0 0

The author of John wanted to make sure to associate Jesus with Passover, the paschal lamb.

Hardly the only discrepancy between the many gospel accounts.
Remember these were all written down long after the time Jesus is said to have lived.

2006-06-20 23:03:03 · answer #5 · answered by mo mosh 6 · 0 0

It has to do with different calendars used at that time some stated that the passover ended on Friday or on Sabbath. Highligthed subjects as this does not support the false truth that Jesus and the Bible are false. There is enough evidence to believe in both Jesus and the Bible and I have come to realize that there is enough evidence to believe against it. I think God allowed this to happen - we have the freedom of choice to believe or not believe. If you don't believe you better be right thats all I know but if you believe you have nothing to loose if you follow Jesus and he doesn't exist the end will be the same for those who don't believe but if you believe and it turns out to be true then the end will be different for you. God bless.

2006-06-19 04:30:22 · answer #6 · answered by Damian 5 · 0 0

It is not a discrepancy. Common sense.

What holiday was going on when it happened? The passover. They wanted to take him down before the sabbath, marking the end of the Passover.

Just a little bit of jewish holiday/tradition knowledge will answer that one.


Remember, the sabbath then was Saturday. Not Sunday.

2006-06-19 04:33:01 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There isn't no discrepancies.
According to Mark 14:12,14; 15:6 = it was still Passover (Lev.23:4-5)
John 19:14,31,42 says the same thing; he died on Passover.

***JESUS DIED WEDNESDAY APRIL 14, 31AD

A good foundation (1Tim.6:19) has solid ground evidence. The foundation should include 2Tim.3:16; Isaiah 28:9-10; 2Peter 1:19-21; 1Thess.5:20-21 & Ephes.5:9-10,13. To understand deeply--you must use these websites:
http://www.bbmhp.org/visaids/nt/crucweek.html
http://lcg.org

If you read Daniel 9:27; it says "he died in the middle of the week"; that would be Wednesday. This is followed by "3 days & 3 nights" = Matthew 12:40 which equals 1-24hr.day x 3days equals 72hrs. in grave. Next the Bible tells us it would be "after 3days and "not before = Matt.27:63-64 and Mark 8:31. It tells us in three days (John 2:19-21) and not after. The Bible also reminds us a day is 12hrs. not including the night(John 11:9-10). Remember also Gen.1:5 and Lev.23:32 tells us "evening to evening" is considered to be a day.

HEBREW CALENDAR-month of Abib or Nisan (APRIL 31AD)

Wednesday 14
Lord's Supper--Tues.Even
Put in grave Wed.Even
LEV.23:5--[14TH DAY=PASSOVER]
DAN.9:27--["DIED IN MIDST OF WEEK"]
JOHN 13:1; 18:39--[FEAST OF PASSOVER]
JOHN 19:14,31--[PREPARATION OF PASSOVER; NEXT DAY WAS A SABBATH HIGH DAY]
LUKE 22:13--[PASSOVER]
MATT.27:57--[EVENING CAME AND JOSEPH BEGGED THE BODY OF JESUS]
MARK 14:12; 15:42--[PREPARE TO EAT PASSOVER; THE DAY BEFORE THE SABBATH]]
LUKE 23:54--[SABBATH DREW ON]

Dictionary: Drew=to pull or drag. On=over & in contact with.

Thursday 15
Wed.Even= 1night
Thurs.Even=1day
Annual Sabbath
Feast of Unleavened Bread
NO WORK!
EXODUS 13:3,4,6,7--[NO LEAVENED BREAD; MONTH OF ABIB; ONLY EAT UNLEAVENED BREAD FOR 7 DAYS]
LEVITICUS 23:6-7--[15TH DAY; HOLY CONVOCATION]
MATT.27:63-64--[AFTER 3 DAYS]
**CLUE = MATT.26:5 --[NOT ON THE FEAST DAY]
ISAIAH 66:23

Friday 16
THURS. EVEN= 1 NIGHT
FRIDAY EVEN = 1DAY
PREPARATION DAY
MARK 16:1--[probably Thurs.Even--BOUGHT SPICES AFTER SABBATH]
LUKE 23:56--[PREPARED SPICES BEFORE WEEKLY SABBATH]
**NOTES--YOU HAVE TO BUY BEFORE YOU CAN PREPARE! ALSO IT TAKES ALL DAY TO PREPARE SPICES!

Saturday 17
FRIDAY EVEN=1 NIGHT
SAT.EVEN= JESUS ROSE! = 1 DAY
WEEKLY SABBATH
"SEVENTH DAY"= 7TH DAY
NO WORK!
GEN.2:2
EXOD.20:8-11
LEV.23:3
HEB.3:18-19; 4:1-11
MARK 2:27-28
REV.14:7,12
**NOTES= SABBATH IN ENCYCLOPAEDIA AMERICANA, VOL.24, PP.68-69 AND/OR DICTIONARY.

Sunday 18
SAT.EVEN
SUN.EVEN
"FIRST DAY"= 1ST DAY
GENESIS 1:5
MATT.28:1,6,13
MARK 16:6,9
LUKE 24:1,3,6
JOHN 20:1,19
**NOTE: COULDN'T OF BOUGHT BECAUSE MARY & MARY MAGDALENE WENT TO THE GRAVE AFTER THE SABBATH.
THE NEW AMERICAN ROGET'S COLLEGE THESAURUS--
DAWN=DARK, EVENING, TWILIGHT, ETC.

Now I know this is true because the MAJORITY(Matt.7:13) is always wrong. Also there's many clues that it wasn't a Friday crucifixion and a Sunday resurrection; look at 2Tim.2:18. But you will point out Mark 16:9 which says "Now when Jesus was risen[the perfect tense is correct here--he was already risen] early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene." Now the original Greek didn't have no punctuation. If the King James translators put a comma after the word "risen" and not after "week", this would make complete sense. The Centenary Translation renders it this way: "Now after his resurrection, early on the first day of the week he appeared first to Mary Magdalene."

If you want more truths of the Bible.
Also I have lots of truth in different subjects in:
http://community.webshots.com/user/morrisonmcdf1

2006-06-19 04:37:12 · answer #8 · answered by KNOWBIBLE 5 · 0 0

The disciples of Jesus wrote thier books near the end of thier lives, so thier recollections weren't as great as you would write a book about your childhood when you're 70 or 80 years old.

2006-06-19 04:19:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You're mistaken. In both accounts, Christ and his apostles celebrate the passover meal before he was crucified (meaning that in both accounts he died afterward).

2006-06-19 04:23:00 · answer #10 · answered by Baron Hausenpheffer 4 · 0 0

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