2006-06-18 09:56:54 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Unknown, there is no actual last name known. And chances are that he didn't have one at all. That was very common for the lower class back then.
2006-06-18 09:59:44 · answer #1 · answered by The All-Knowing Sam 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
this is a good question
i think that because there is only one God and one Jesus Christ that there is no need for last names i mean in society if we didnt have any last names everyone would be confused because people have the same name but not last name (usually)
2006-06-18 17:03:48 · answer #2 · answered by KissmeimItalian 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, m any times your first name was followed by your father's name. However, since Jesus was born out to an unwed mother He was given the name Jesus of Nazareth indicating what city He was from.
2006-06-18 17:02:39 · answer #3 · answered by southfloridamullets 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He did not have a last name. Most men were known by where they came from. Jesus of Nazareth, Joseph of Arimathea, etc...
Also, Christ is not part of his name. Christ means The Messiah.
2006-06-18 17:05:10 · answer #4 · answered by ChrisJ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
im not an expert but i believe deciding which of a variety of names Jesus Christ was known as would accurately be his "true" name if you will, would be pretty challenging...however, and perhaps I'm being critical here, everyone who has any name at all has a last name...even if it's their first name, if someone only has one name then it is their first and last
2006-06-18 17:22:16 · answer #5 · answered by kaos 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus doesn't have a last name, last names were not required until the year 580 or so. that's why we see Joseph of Arimatha, .. until last names were required, they usually just added where the person was from.
2006-06-18 17:02:41 · answer #6 · answered by ♥Poetic1♥ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Back in biblical times people's surnames came from where they were from. Jesus was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
2006-06-18 17:01:36 · answer #7 · answered by Oblivia 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus al-Nazaretha or Jesus of Nazareth.
Jesus Ben-Joseph or Jesus son of Joseph.
Things were smaller and more personal back then.
2006-06-18 18:21:36 · answer #8 · answered by Andy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They didn't have last names as we think of them today. He was "Jesus of Nazareth" Although his original name was closer to Yeshua, so perhaps you could call him "Yeshua Josephson of Nazareth the Christ" (Christ is a title meaning messiah)
2006-06-18 17:03:07 · answer #9 · answered by Joe Shmoe 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To quote eg_ansel (who used Hebrew, which is accurate) in the greek (which was translated later), it was Jesus bar Joseph.
Either way, it means Jesus, son of Joseph.
2006-06-18 17:04:31 · answer #10 · answered by Hyzakyt 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋