Was polygamy an excuse 4 joseph smith to commit adultery?

Question

I'm Convinced it was. Since he practiced it for at least 10 years prior to the 1843 revelation.

"Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the lord" Book of mormon Jacob 2:24 also 2:27. the only men who become gods are those who enter into polygamy journal of discourses 11:269 (contradiction)of b.o.m.another in
jrnl od dis. 13:165 pg.166. and then on top of that. In the manifesto everlasting don't mean much to woodruff officially rescinded polygamy and plural marriage after section 138 of D&C.//// Bible we are to be the husband of one wife till death do us part and there is no marriage in heaven.!!! Cor 7:2,1 Tim. 3:2, and Jesus words in Matt.19:5 No marriage in heaven Matt. 22:30 and this has not changed for God changeth not.

remember this a (?) revelation of joe smith mmm was this from God or did joe make it up yea he made it up.

contender ministries org

Answer 1

I agree that it probably was an excuse for Joseph Smith to practise adultery. It was furthermore an excuse for him to engage in theft. In this case it was the theft of women from other men, which probably would have left several without wives.

Mormonism, as you know, is based on Freemasonry, and Freemasonry is a form of organized theft. Freemasons of various backgrounds have been overheard to use the words "take" and "we took" when they really meant "rob". If the Kinsmen or Kiwanis donate something such as a park to a community (a park would be a kind of liquid commodity) they may "take" from people in the community on another system, possibly the system of benefits (promotions, advancement opportunities, education for offspring). People are suspected of being robbed of their lives on the sneak. The theft, "trading", or "exchanging" could really called chiseling. The dealers tend to "take" a generous overhead.

Why do Mormons seem to tend to support George W. Bush and his wars, major thefts of lives?

Prior to one of Joseph Smith's "revelations", had he read Solomon Spalding's book?

Answer 2

Absolutely not. Did you know Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David, and Solomon also had many wives? This was not a new concept. Joseph Smith was very hesitant in the first place about having a second wife. Also, for any of you who are wondering - no, Mormons do not still practice POLYGYNY (the practice of having more than one wife - polygamy is when either spouse is able to have more than one mate at a time)!!!! The practice was stopped in 1890, so anyone who still practices is not a member of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (aka the Mormons).

Answer 3

I think so. Polygamist seperated from the Mormons because the differnent views they had about plural-marriage

Answer 4

no, if god told you to do it i makes it right...It is did you know that solomon had lots of wifes...

Answer 5

That's a serious possibility.

Answer 6

yes it probably was. this is why i dislike mormonism.

Answer 7

There were some unhappy wives under this system. There are also numerous accounts of much love and many beautiful relationships in this type of marriage. Most complaints appear to have come from the MEN. If lust was the motive for the men, this could have been satisfied without the responsibility and problems of trying to keep several families supported and functioning and potential jealousies controlled.

Speeches by Church leaders such as Brigham Young bring this out:

The man that enters into this order by the prompting of passion, and not with a view to honour God and carry out his purposes, the curse of God will rest upon him, and that which he seems to have will be taken from him and given to those that act according to principle. Remember it (JD 9:37).

Of course journal of Discourses is not offical Doctrine but if you are using it so will I :)


people say say LDS polygamy is from the devil. They do not attack Hebrew or Moslem polygamy. Why do they only criticize LDS plural marriages God both approved of biblical polygamy and disapproved of it. God is offended when those who practice monogamy commit adultery and he is offended when polygamists commit the same sin. David, who had numerous wives given him of God (2 Sam. 12:8) and was highly favored of God, was severely condemned by God when he committed adultery with Bathsheba (2 Sam., chapters 11-12). See also comments in relation to page 160, line 34 The Book of Mormon does say the general rule is monogamy, but that under certain circumstances the Lord will require a plurality of wives. ALso as I am sure you know although I like reading the journal of discourses it is not offical doctrine and you need to also remember it was written in short hand you can acually look at the originals at The farms website :)


Marriages in Heaven
Many people have quoted the story in Matt. 22 that has language about not marrying in heaven. Marriage is an ordinance bringing change in relationships and is thus an ordinance for this mortal world that must be performed before we enter into the eternal realms in the presence of the Father. We do not marry in heaven - that ordinance must be done beforehand. To have eternal power to seal in heaven what is sealed on earth, the sealing of a man and woman must be performed in the Temple by one who has received the sealing power that Christ gave to Peter. This is what Temple marriage is all about. And it can only be done on earth.
Further insight into this questions comes from Dan Bachman (e-mail, March 1999):

It may interest you to know that the Matt. 22 story of the woman and her seven husbands was one of the very passages which caused Joseph Smith to inquire of the Lord about marriage. The Lord's response to his prayer is known as Doctrine and Covenants 132, and is the main revelation responsible for our belief in eternal marriage. What I'm saying is the very passage you say refutes the idea of eternal marriage is the one which led to its introduction in the LDS Church. How so?
The story told to Jesus by the Sadducees was about a specific woman and her seven husbands. They wanted to know "in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven?" (Matt. 22:28) The Savior's reply is extremely interesting and merits a great deal of thought. He said that they erred in denying the resurrection on the basis of this story for two reasons. First, they did not know the scriptures. Second, they did not know the power of God. That is interesting, because these were supposedly the scripture experts of that day -- yet he said they did not know them.

He went on to say "For in the resurrection THEY neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven. Let me make the following points regarding the Savior's reply.

1) The word "they" refers specifically to the 8 people in the story, and not necessarily to all other people. Who were these people? In verse 25, the Sadducees say "there were WITH US seven brethren," suggesting that the seven men in this specific case study were Sadducees also. Sadducees were a rather worldly group that denied the resurrection and generally rejected Christ. They aren't likely to be in the kingdom of heaven, so their marriages on earth are irrelevant. Yet, most Christians believe that this verse means that nobody is married in heaven. That is wrong - and fact made even more clear by the next point below.

2) If you read verse 30 carefully, Jesus clearly speaks of two groups in heaven: a) people who are married in heaven and b) angels.

I believe it is this implication that perhaps led Joseph Smith to inquire of God about the meaning of this passage. Joseph left two records about what he learned by revelation in answer to his question. The first is a summary statement about the story, which comes from the minutes of a meeting where he told a questioner that he learned that a man must marry for eternity or else he would be single in heaven. The more detailed account can be found in D&C 132:4-28. The most pertinent verses are 7, 15-17.

Verse 7 explains that for a marriage to be eternal it must meet four conditions which are: 1) it must be made and entered into and sealed by the Holy Spirit of promise. 2) It must be performed by "him who is anointed"--in other words who is properly authorized to perform the eternal marriage. 3) It must be done "both as well for time and for all eternity." And 4) it must be done by revelation and commandment through the medium of mine anointed."

Now verses 15-17 explain that the reason the woman and her seven husband were not married eternally is because they did not meet these four requirements. Verses 16-17 make clear the distinction between being eternally married and being an angel. They read:

16) Therefore, when they are out of the world they neither marry nor are given in marriage; but are appointed angels in heaven, which angels are ministering servants.... 17) For these angels did not abide my law; therefore, they cannot be enlarged, but remain separately and singly, without exaltation, in their saved condition, to all eternity; and from henceforth are not gods, but are angels of God forever and ever."
If the story in Matt. 22 is understood in a more generic sense, not just applying to the seven Sadducee brothers, it is still technically correct. Temple marriage, like baptism, is an ordinance of change and covenant making that must occur prior to entering into heaven. They are ordinances intended for mortals to prepare them for the endless state of Eternal Life in God's presence by bringing mortals into unchanging, eternal covenants. Christ did not say that the married state does not exist, nor that husbands and wives will not be sealed in the heavens, but he said that marriages aren't performed in heaven. Neither baptism nor marriage is performed in heaven, but must be done on earth. Christ gave Peter power to seal, such that what is sealed ON EARTH might remain sealed in heaven (Matt. 16:19). Temple marriage is also called "sealing" since a husband and wife are sealed together. It is an ordinance that can only be done on earth, like baptism, but if done with proper authority and if the terms of that covenant are fulfilled, then the sealing will be valid in the heavens and the husband and wife will be heirs together of the grace of life (1 Pet. 3:7).
Thus, in a generic sense, Christ explained that after we are resurrected, there would be no confusion about relationships because marriages aren't performed there. Marriage, baptism, and some other covenants are handled on earth, either by the living themselves or by the living vicariously for the deceased, and sources of confusion will need to be ironed out and resolved with God's help before we enter into Eternal Life in His presence.

In Matt. 19:4-6, shortly after Christ gave Peter power to seal in heaven what was sealed on earth, Christ spoke of marriage:

And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them in the beginning made them male and female,
And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
Adam and Eve, before they fell, were immortal and were joined by God. There is no indication that God said "until death do you part" in joining them. They were married in an immortal state and were intended to remain joined together. "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." In the LDS view, based on direct and clear revelations to the Prophet Joseph Smith, we know that marriage is intended to be eternal, that a husband and wife are meant to be sealed together in heaven. Those who have experienced the rich joy of true love between a husband and wife - as I have - should marvel that God would want it any other way. Marriage is one of the greatest and most divine gifts - a gift that is not eradicated in the resurrection. The world has lost this knowledge, but I'm grateful for the Restoration of the fullness of the Gospel and for the restoration of the Temple, where such sacred ordinances are performed.
If there is eternal marriage, why didn't Christ teach this in the Bible?
There are indications of eternal marriage and eternal families in the Bible. One of the earliest comes from Job. At the end, Job is blessed with double of all the things he had lost (Job 42:10,12). We are then given a lost of these things, and indeed we see that he was blessed with double the number of sheep, camels, oxen, and asses. But "he had also seven sons and three daughters" (Job 42:13), the same number be had before his trial (Job 1:2). The implication is that he still had the original children, consistent with the LDS view that families can be eternal.
2 Pet. 3:7 hints at eternal marriage, when Peter speaks of the man and woman being "heirs together" of the grace of life. Another suggestion of eternal marriage comes from the word of Christ about the sealing power he gave to Peter (Matt. 16:19 and Matt. 18:18): whatsoever you bind on earth will be bound (sealed) in heaven. And of marriage, Christ said "What God hath joined together, let not man put asunder" (Matt. 19:6). Also, in the Lord (possibly meaning in heaven or in the eternities), the man is not without the woman and vice versa, according to 1 Cor. 11:11.

The Bible is admittedly incomplete in its teachings of eternal marriage, as it is for many doctrines and practices had by early Christians, including baptism for the dead (1 Cor. 15:29), the method of ordaining by the laying on of hands, the role of prophets and others in the church, the switch of the day of worship from Saturday to Sunday, and so forth. But that doesn't mean that these concepts were not taught clearly by the Lord. Christ taught his apostles for 40 days after His resurrection, and we hardly have a word recorded of what He taught. John says his record just scratches the surface of all that Christ did and taught (John 21:25). And we have abundant evidence that there were books of scripture treasured by the ancients that are no longer available (see my LDSFAQ page about the Bible). How do you know that eternal marriage was not known and taught? It's existence is not obvious in the current canon of books that were written and preserved, but there are evidences from early Christian sources that eternal marriage was known. See Mormonism and Early Christianity, an excellent site by Barry Bickmore, for more information.






Joseph Smith did not ask God if adultery was all right. As D&C 132:1 makes clear, he asked God to clarify the biblically sanctioned practice of plurality of wives. When sanctioned by God plurality of wives is not the same as adultery. Why did the authors not mention the sources that bring out how reluctant Joseph was to enter into this practice, how he resisted the idea, how he initially refused?

Mary Elizabeth Rollins Lightner claim was that Joseph Smith pleaded with the angel more than once, arguing against the practice, before the angel came with the drawn sword telling Joseph he must begin practicing it. If lust was Joseph Smith's motivation , why would he go through all the turmoil, abuse, suffering, arrests, and imprisonment that he did? He could have easily satisfied his passions the way many others do—by illicit sex relations and not a statement of religious principle that was bound to provoke opposition and persecution.