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If a couple is using abstinance as 'birth control' but at one point they loose control and the girl gets pregnant, does this mean that abstinance failed as birth control in their case.

After all, other forms of BC have two ratings for effectiveness--one for perfect use and one for typical use. 'Course abstinance is 100% with perfect use, but should it be counted as less than 100% for the times it is not used perfectly (ie the couple just can't contain themselves any longer?)

2006-06-16 04:52:24 · 9 answers · asked by mikayla_starstuff 5 in Pregnancy & Parenting Other - Pregnancy & Parenting

In response to the comment below--the need to take the pill everyday is a risk of taking the pill. Forgetting to take the pill is imperfect use of the pill which falls under 'typical use' because people do not have perfect memories.
Typical use assumes that people will make mistakes. Put on condom wrong, fail in being abstinent, etc.

Also this is not a question about where self-control comes from, for the one who is using this question to give religious advice . . .

2006-06-16 05:58:56 · update #1

9 answers

I don't think abstinence and birth control go hand in hand. To me birth control implies that sex is taking place and a person is attempting to find a way to avoid pregnancy. However abstinence is the total absence of sex hence pregnancy is not possible because of a lack of sex.

I really like this question, but I think it is a bit of a trick for those not totally understanding the concept of abstinence.

2006-06-16 08:34:57 · answer #1 · answered by Just me.... 4 · 5 0

Abstinence did not fail. The couple's ability to control their desires and hormones did. True abstinence is the commitment to refrain from sex. You made a conscious choice to engage in sexual activity. True failure come into play when you properly utilize a method and despite the proper use, the method failed. Obviously, you did not properly follow the rules of abstinence.

2006-06-16 13:37:56 · answer #2 · answered by cgspitfire 6 · 0 0

It's a question of semantics. If they fail to abstain, it's not really a failure of abstinence. Abstinence still works just fine, but it's one method that isn't really practiced unless it's practiced 100% of the time.

2006-06-16 15:58:33 · answer #3 · answered by sdc_99 5 · 0 0

Abstinence didn't fail. The teenagers failed at controlling themselves.

2006-06-16 12:15:23 · answer #4 · answered by creativereading 4 · 0 0

I wouldn't say that abstinance failed. Abstinance means not having sex at all. it is always 100% effective. You failed at abstaining.

2006-06-16 13:24:15 · answer #5 · answered by mommy_2_liam 7 · 0 0

But then they wouldn't still be using abstinance so no I don't think it failed. If you dont take your pill you know damn well it wasnt the pill that failed you?

2006-06-16 11:58:29 · answer #6 · answered by gnomes31 5 · 0 0

that's a good question . i think that if they had sex then the birth control failed (abstinence)

2006-06-16 11:57:00 · answer #7 · answered by laase12 2 · 0 0

Self-control is a fruit of God's Holy Spirit. Get to know him.

2006-06-16 12:13:20 · answer #8 · answered by motherof8 1 · 0 0

lol that would be the chance of conceiving during normal sex then or 25%

cute question

2006-06-16 12:59:24 · answer #9 · answered by tpuahlekcip 6 · 0 0

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