It's easy to ignore. Cause today God is different. If they say otherwise, then they are the one's who are dishonest. Why would selling your daughter as a sex slave be alright in one book, then suddenly bad the next? Obviously something has changed here. And I am sure that many will justify it by calling you Ignorant and say you don't know what the Bible really says (even though you just quoted it). No matter how they turn, though, there is no rationalizing the Old Testament God with the New Testament God.
Good to see you, btw. ^_^
2006-06-15 05:32:43
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answer #1
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answered by Kithy 6
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Haven't you people ever heard of CONTEXT? In case you've forgotten your high school English classes, that means reading the sentences AROUND the one you are focusing on so you know what's really being talked about...
1st: When the Bible (such as in the Judges passage) refers to the "children of Ammon" or the "children of Israel," it's not talking about kids, but nations/ decendents. So the "children of Israel" defeated the "children of Ammon" in battle.
2nd: The passages in Isaiah, Hosea and Psalms are talking about the ravages of war and oppression, not what parents should do their kids. They either refer to what enemies will do to the Israelite chlidren or the fact that it may seem preferable to kill the children rather than let them be taken by the oppressing/ conquering nations to be tortured and abused.
3rd: The passage in Exodus actually sets forth rules for the PROTECTION of those who were in servitude. Slavery in those days was not what we think of (the cruel, racially-based slavery that was so prevalent in our nation's history), more like indentured servitude, like to pay off debts and such. This type of servitude was common many years after the Israelite nation ceased to be, and for the most part was probably not very unlike the practice of having a butler, maid or nanny is today. Did some abuse it? Sure! That's why God set rules down for the servants' protection!
All that said, we're not even under the Old Testament today, so those laws have no direct bearing for us. If you'll read the New Testament, you'll find that women are put on a pedastal to be cherished, children are to be loved and nurtured by their parents and we are still to be good to our employees or employers (as the case may be).
2006-06-15 04:47:23
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answer #2
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answered by TexasMom 3
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i noticed that too. they just take the ones that fit with their desires
they will tell you it was the custom of that time. why doesn't God change such a custom? why should a book of God discuss the custom? is it to encourage it? or to agree with it?
i agree either take it as whole or ignore it as a whole. why does God give us a book and then he gives us the choice to take the part that we want? is this the words of God or what?
it's really weird, i was surprised myself. anyway they'd better ignore these parts. think how the world would be if people still do these things. anyway if they don't ignore it no one will accept their faith. it's the only way they either pervert the bible or find an excuse to ignore some parts of it.
check this:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=Ane9uJW4ql3eWfTsL6iuH0Tsy6IX?qid=20060613114341AAYftbw
2006-06-15 04:42:19
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answer #3
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answered by Answers 5
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Why do navajoes like you repeatedly ask these questions about the bible and yet you don't believe it? Why do you,Brianna, ignore the good parts of the bible? You,brianna, need to read all of it! All the scriptures that you point out are in the Old Testament. You need to read the new testament. Stick to paganism.
2006-06-15 05:35:08
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answer #4
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answered by Pashur 7
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Welcome to the understanding of Hypocrisy!
If it really WAS the undisputed 'words of god', I would've thought one would not be able to pick and choose, but there you go, if you say one thing, they say 'god inspired man to write it-it MUST be truth!' Say another thing and it's all 'Oh, well that OBVIOUSLY must be symbolic!'(because it doesn't fit into their social molds).....Hmm. So the biblical authors of those times had no 'human' traits, then? Like prejudice, vanity or cowardice?
As for interpretation, I take it god must guide that too? How convenient that the interpretation that becomes accepted just happens to be socially acceptable too.....
:)
2006-06-15 04:20:07
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answer #5
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answered by googlywotsit 5
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I under no circumstances fairly understood how "cases were distinct back then" will be used as an exact argument therefore. Did God have a distinct set of morals back then? Or is the Bible no longer the interest of God, then?
2016-10-30 22:48:08
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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It is hard for some them to acknowledge the entirety of the work, and that is my personal opinion. They take the lines and verses they like and repeat them over and over again until they make everyone else follow them in droves hoping to be saved for sins they have not committed.
My Gaea protect us all.
2006-06-16 20:33:34
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answer #7
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answered by Phoenix Summersun 3
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Sigh. Okay, you need to learn a little, study up, see why that happened, and I think people ignore it 'cause they don't want to scare people off. Sorry, but I think it's the truth. Also, some people don't want to admit that it's true. I'm a Christian, so don't think I like saying this.
2006-06-15 04:26:25
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answer #8
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answered by annarie14 2
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they only see what they want and then they convince themselves and/or have other's help them, that an atheistic/skeptical view is unfounded, for whatever reason (they seem to be fond of 'you're taking this out of context, or 'God works in mysterious ways')
or they just ignore it and anyone who says anything so they can keep believing what they're told...b/c it's easier that way
2006-06-15 04:44:20
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answer #9
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answered by strpenta 7
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I'm afraid you're ignorant at worst, and intellectually dishonest at best. If you REALLY want to know what these passages mean (which the likelihood is that you don't) email me at everist_tenor@yahoo.com
2006-06-15 04:20:24
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answer #10
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answered by RandyGE 5
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