Its found in the Bible.
Matt 1:18-25: "Now the birth of Jesus Christ was as follows: After his mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, before they came together [had sexual intercourse], she was found with child of the Holy Spirit" (1:18).
With this sentence, Matthew eliminates any male, human parentage for Jesus. His conception was "of the Holy Spirit." But imagine Mary attempting to explain this to her fiancee': "Joseph, I'm pregnant - but I'm still a virgin. Really!"
Needless to say, Joseph didn't believe her. Under Jewish Law, he could have had her executed for sexual infidelity (Deut 22:22-24). However, Matthew writes, "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put her away [divorce her] secretly" (1:19).
But sometime thereafter he married her. Something must have happened convincing him Mary had not been unfaithful. This "something" was the appearance of an angel. Joseph was told, "that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit" (1:20).
Luke 1:26-38: "Now in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent by God to a city of Galilee named Nazareth, to A VIRGIN betrothed to a man named Joseph, of the house of David. The virgin's name was Mary."
After this introduction in verses 26 and 27, Luke records the announcement of the angel to Mary, "Behold, you will conceive in your womb and bring forth a Son" (1:31). Mary's response was to ask, "How can this be, since I do not know a man [am a virgin]?"
The angel responds to Mary's inquiry, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, the Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God" (1:35). So Luke confirms Matthew's claim Jesus was born of the virgin Mary and "of the Holy Spirit."
2006-06-14 16:13:43
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answer #1
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answered by smashingly.smashing 4
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Ok first of all - the term "immaculate conception" refers to Mary's own birth not the birth of Jesus. It was immaculate - without sin - because her parents did the deed with the specific goal of conceiving a child. As for Mary's virginity, there are 2 schools of thought there. Purists believe she was, in fact, physically a virgin. Historical evidence shows though that at the time in in this society, marriage was different than we do it now. A couple became married but if no pregnancy occurred within the first year, the husband could elect to end it as if it had never happened and marry someone else. If she became pregnant in this first year it was considered a maiden (virgin) pregnancy because the marriage was not solidified by continuing into the second year. Hope this helps.
2006-06-14 19:31:05
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answer #2
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answered by renegadedustbunny 2
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At least until Jesus was born! A virgin birth is very possible for God. But, there was no need for her to remain a virgin once Jesus was born. There's nowhere in the Bible that says she remained celebate. The Roman Catholic Catechism says that Mary remained a virgin for her entire life. But that is based only on Catholic tradition, a very dangerous concept, especially when it opposes Biblical teaching; as in this instance where it disregards scripture regarding Jesus' brothers and sisters (see Matthew 13:55 and Mark 6:3). But for 'he who has an ear to hear' the Word of God is always able to reveal Satanicly-inspired lies.
2006-06-14 17:57:54
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answer #3
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answered by Steve 1
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According to the Bible, Jesus was conceived by the Holy Ghost, born of a virgin. Woman can be virgins and pregnant now. It's called invitro fertilization.
And FYI, Joseph and Mary were not married at the time of the conception of Jesus. They were betrothed.
2006-06-14 16:11:17
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Mary was a virgin when she had Jesus.. that was because He was totally God and totally human. Too much for us to comprehend..but its in the Bible. Someday we will understand However, later on she has other children that are mentioned by Jesus. So she didnt stay a virgin but was nonetheless an amazing person.
2006-06-14 17:29:42
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answer #5
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answered by turtles 2
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I'm sorry - I believe in Jesus.
I know there has to be a GOD.
But virgin! I do truly believe that due to fornication with Joseph, it was a cover up story!
Mary may have been used as a vessel to bring Jesus into the world, and Joseph the carrier of the creator...
But do to human nature, I don't believe so!
2006-06-14 16:13:20
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answer #6
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answered by STARLITE 4
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I'm not sure but here's some food for thought. Isn't it weird that she was married to Joseph and still a virgin? I don't know of any married couples who don't or haven't had sex. But remember, the story goes that Jesus was immaculately conceived. This means God just kind of put him there.
2006-06-14 16:10:12
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answer #7
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answered by Playmate3 2
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Of course she was a virgin. That's why she is called the VIRGIN Mary!!!
2006-06-21 12:14:35
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answer #8
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answered by Samba Queen 5
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The name "Virgin Mary" says it all, 'Mary the virgin', here is your answer!
If you believe that or not is personal choice!
2006-06-14 16:11:22
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answer #9
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answered by tacrj 3
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God does not break the law of graivty. God doesnot break the law of keineseology. God does not break the law of aging. God does not break the law of conception. These laws are put here to put order on earth. Some people believe things that I view as unrealistic because on some level it absolzes them and works for them. If their religion didn't work for them, they wouldn't believe thesee things. The mind is a powerful energy sourse (another law which is not broken by God). I just want to know how shocked May and Joseph were when people bought it... lol. But they were clever, putting a spin on it of old prophecies and possibely twisting them in their favor. Very clever people. Jesus himself seems like he was intelligent. Must of come from BOTH Mary and Joseph;)
2006-06-14 16:29:32
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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