~Yes I can. You could too, if only you'd try to use a little common cents.
2006-06-12 16:33:44
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Clever..The trick, of course, is all in the details. If you had continued to write the equation fully, the third line would read "1$ = (.01$)^2", which is incorrect, because you can't convert just the one side of the equation to "dollars" arbitrarily. If you divide the 10c by 100 to get .1$, you must also divide the other side of the equation by 100.
2006-06-12 16:43:43
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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When the equation changes to (0.1$)^2 the 1$ that it had equaled previously would have changed to .01$
The assumption left open that all of the equations repeated underneath the initial equation would also automatically equal 1$ is false.
1$=100c
.01$=1c
Didn't your HS math teacher tell you about ASSUME ing anything?
2006-06-25 03:50:32
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answer #3
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answered by elross 2
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You changed the sign, and added a decimal
1$=100c
=(10c)^2
from here you put a dollar sign and added a decimal
2006-06-12 16:34:30
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answer #4
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answered by Jeep Driver 5
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$1=100 pennies
2006-06-12 16:44:24
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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1 dlr=100c
2006-06-12 17:03:34
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answer #6
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answered by ? 3
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It's like counting the stones at Stonehenge!
2006-06-25 13:09:32
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answer #7
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answered by Gina D 2
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Dollar's equals sense!
http://www.total-knowledge.com/~willyblues/
2006-06-26 10:25:26
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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if 1$=1c i would be rich and im not so it must not be right
2006-06-12 16:36:58
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answer #9
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answered by flames33760 2
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thanx 4 2 pts but i dint got ur question
2006-06-25 23:14:17
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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Of course it does. Look at the converted variables.
2006-06-20 10:25:42
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answer #11
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answered by Boy Wonder 4
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