English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

According to catholism, virgin Mary was sinless. God grace Kept her from the “curse of the original sin”.

If that’s so easy for God then why don’t he do it to all of us? Why did Christ have to come die as atonement for sins?

2006-06-11 21:01:23 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

i have never heard that Mary wuz sinless, just a virgin. and she wasn't kept from the curse of the orgasim because Jesus had brothers and sisters. Jesus had to die because up until that point the Jewish people had to kill animals as an atonment for there sins mainly because of Adam and Eve. in order to save us blood had to be shed. thats y Jesus was sent so we didn't have to sacrifice anymore and so our sins could be saved by simply askin Him

2006-06-11 21:11:59 · answer #1 · answered by zoooooom!!! 5 · 2 1

Please do not listen to all those who attack the sinlessness of the Blessed Virgin Mary. Forgive them, for they know not what they are saying.

The fact that the Virgin Mary was without sin is a purely gratuitous (free) gift of God. God can grant anyone any grace which He so chooses. He is the Author and Source of all grace. Those who deny that this is possible deny the omnipotence (all-powerfulness) of God. He granted the Virgin Mary this single and unique privilege of being conceived without sin, and of never performing a sin in her life. This is not because she is divine. She remains a human being. But the difference is this: She was loved by God (by Christ) in a unique way. No one has the authority to tell God whom He can and cannot love in a privileged way. Those who deny the Blessed Virgin's sinlessness are probably, deep down, jealous. Jealousy is a sin of pride. I for one, along with the entire Catholic Church, praise and glorify God for His unique gift of love which He granted to the Virgin Mary. Instead of making us jealous, it should make us thankfuI.

I hope this helps you.

PS: By the way, Christ's sacrifice on the Cross is a source of atonement for all -- even the Virgin Mary. She was "ransomed" by the Precious Blood of Our Lord, a Blood which He freely shed at the Cross. She was "ransomed" by this Blood in advance. The source and cause of Mary's being sinless is Christ's sacrificial death on the Cross. THAT is the source of all grace.

2006-06-16 15:52:48 · answer #2 · answered by uiogdpm 3 · 2 0

For all the answerer's Virgin Mary was sinless from the minute she was born. Back to your question God gave us the hardest thing that is free to do what ever we want. HE has put no fences and sins are only a result of our ideas. Try life without sins it is just as life without trouble you will never enjoy it. The problem is to overcome them.

2006-06-11 21:17:08 · answer #3 · answered by kiko 2 · 1 0

Mary wasn't sinless as the catholics claim, she was righteous but sinned like anyone else but was a holy women indeed who knew God's grace. Christ was the only one who was sinless.

2006-06-11 21:05:11 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Saying Mary was sinless is denying that God is only without sin. You are denying God has come in the flesh for our sins and the only one that has overcome sin.... with saying and believing thus: Sinless Virgin MAry... you are also sinning yourself.

2006-06-11 21:28:04 · answer #5 · answered by Philadelphia 2 · 0 1

Catholics are messed up. Marry was not sinless. Also after the virgin birth of Christ Mary had sex because she had other children after Christ. Jesus had brothers so I don't have a clue as to why the Catholics insist on caller her "The virgin Mary".

2006-06-11 21:09:49 · answer #6 · answered by kissmymindagain 3 · 0 1

Mary was set aside by God and kept Holy.
Read the:
Annunciation, Luke 1: 26-38
Visitation, Luke 1: 39-56

2006-06-11 21:11:47 · answer #7 · answered by Bishop David F. Milne DD 3 · 1 0

She was not sinless. We all fall short of the glory of God. Romans 3:23. Jesus was the only human who was without sin.

2006-06-11 23:18:26 · answer #8 · answered by ByHisGrace 3 · 0 1

Mary was righteous, didn't say she was sinless, big difference, remember she was just human, she has to have sinned also..

2006-06-11 21:09:40 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

i'm no longer likely to grant a protracted answer because of the fact i've got no longer researched the subject count adequate on account which you purely delivered it up, yet i can assert that the early Jews and Christians translated and copied their sacred texts particularly heavily. in reality the innovations and protocols have been as quickly as very strict. The Greek/ Coptic to Latin translation is youthful than the unique languages of the 4 gospels sure it particularly is authentic yet Hebrew is older than the unique greek. in the old testomony the virgin start is prophesied in Aramaic no longer koine is it no longer? additionally no person is for specific what the unique languages of the gospels became yet maximum mavens have faith that it the gospel of Matthew became written in Hebrew and mark Latin and Luke Greek and John all 3 languages. a minimum of as some distance back because of the fact the 2nd century. in the 1st assuming all 4 authentic apostles and disciples of Jesus Christ wrote each gospel then all of them might have purely approximately easily had the two Greek or Hebrew writing in that language undergo in innovations.

2016-12-08 19:43:11 · answer #10 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers