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"...if a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days...but if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks..."
Leviticus 12:2-5

and why is woman unclean? because she gave birth?

2006-06-11 10:52:23 · 11 answers · asked by Answers 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

impossble_dream:
really! that's offensive and unfair toward women.

2006-06-11 11:10:58 · update #1

11 answers

thats why Muslims dont accept each and every word of bible as word of God. but other good parts may be the word of God.

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EDIT >>> impossble_dream

what does circumcision of baby boy has to do with uncleanliness of woman ?

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EDIT >>>> Frankie

you said >> in islam women are supposed to be unwillingly filthy

--- Thats not true. Physical Cleanliness has nothing to with gender . thats why ablution is prescribed for both male and female before prayers.

video of "womans rights in islam - modernizing or outdated" >> see the bottom of this page http://www.aswatalislam.net/DisplayFilesP.aspx?TitleID=50027&TitleName=Zakir_Naik

2006-06-11 11:01:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

It really has to do with the blood flow after. At the risk of sounding personal and even gross... during a woman's "flow" there is odor and well... a mess. Keep in mind they did not have the type of products we have today for such an event so a woman would be "unclean" during her flow. This doesn't mean unclean in the sinful sense, but basically... not clean. The reason it is a week longer if she gives birth to a girl has to do with having a baby boy circumcised 8 days after he is born. Not sure exactly how the circumcision then makes the mother clean but that's why it is like that.

2006-06-11 10:59:51 · answer #2 · answered by impossble_dream 6 · 0 0

Why is she unclean? Well, have you ever witnessed a birth? It's a pretty messy affair. The time of 'uncleanliness' is good in that it allows the woman time to rest and recuperate and spend time with the baby.

So why is the time of uncleanliness longer for a girl than a boy? Maybe it's because she needs to be there for the circumcision if it's a boy, but that's not a problem if it's a girl.

2006-06-11 10:56:20 · answer #3 · answered by Caritas 6 · 0 0

Giving birth also meant a period of uncleanness for the mother. If the baby was a boy, she was unclean for seven days, the same as during her menstrual period. The eighth day the child was circumcised, but for another 33 days the mother was unclean with regard to touching anything holy or coming into the sanctuary, though she did not make unclean everything she touched. If the baby was a girl, this 40-day period was doubled: 14 days plus 66 days. Thus, from birth, the Law distinguished between male and female, assigning to the latter a subordinate position. In either case, at the end of the period of purification she was to bring a ram less than a year old for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a turtledove for a sin offering. If the parents were too poor to afford a ram, as was the case with Mary and Joseph, then two doves or two pigeons served for the cleansing sacrifices.—Le 12:1-8; Lu 2:22-24.

Why did the Mosaic Law say that sexual intercourse and childbirth made a person “unclean”?

The question arises: Why were such normal, proper things as menstruation, sexual intercourse between married persons, and childbirth viewed in the Law as making one “unclean”? For one thing, it raised the most intimate relations of marriage to the level of sanctity, teaching both mates self-control, a high regard for the reproductive organs, and respect for the sacredness of life and blood. The hygienic benefits that accrued from scrupulous observance of these regulations have also been commented on. But there is yet another aspect of the matter.

In the beginning God created the sex impulses and generative powers in the first man and woman and commanded them to cohabit and bring forth children. It was therefore no sin for the perfect pair to have sexual intercourse. However, when Adam and Eve disobeyed God, not in the matter of sex relations, but in eating the forbidden fruit, drastic changes took place. Suddenly their guilty sin-stricken consciences made them aware of their nakedness, and they immediately covered their genital organs from God’s sight. (Ge 3:7, 10, 11) From then on, men could not carry out the procreative mandate in perfection, but, instead, the hereditary blemish of sin and the penalty of death would be transmitted from the parents to children. Even the most upright and God-fearing parents produce sin-infected children.—Ps 51:5.

The Law’s requirements pertaining to the functions of the reproductive organs taught men and women self-discipline, restraint of passions, and respect for God’s means of propagation. The Law’s regulations forcefully reminded creatures of their sinful state; these were not merely health measures to ensure cleanliness or prophylactic safeguards against the spread of diseases. As a reminder of man’s inherited sinfulness, it was fitting that both the male and the female with genital discharges due to normal functions of their bodies observe a period of uncleanness. If suffering abnormal prolonged discharges because of defective conditions, a more extensive period of uncleanness was demanded; and in the end, as also when a mother gave birth, in addition to bathing, a sin offering was necessary, so that God’s priest might make atonement in behalf of the person. Jesus’ mother Mary thus confessed to her hereditary sinfulness, acknowledging that she was not sinless, immaculate, by offering a sin-atoning sacrifice after giving birth to her firstborn.—Lu 2:22-24.

2006-06-11 11:02:37 · answer #4 · answered by BRICK 3 · 0 0

In Bible times a boy's birth was usually a happier occasion than a girl's,although in the family circle the girl was loved by the parents just as much as the boy.The preference for a boy lay in the fact that it assured a
continuance of the family line and name,and it assured the holding of family property.The priority of the male is also indicated by the fact that the purification period under the law was twice as long for female births.
Jehovah God created Adam and Eve perfect and they were to produce perfect offspring,however after their sin they were could not bring forth perfect children as God had purposed.The Laws regulations about menstruation,seminal emissions and childbirth would
forcefully remind the Israelites of their sinful state.The sexual organs were made for a proper and upright purpose,to pass on perfect life.For a Israelite man,passing on life involved his emission of semen.With his wife,it involved her menstruation,for this was part of a cycle by which she was able to conceive.Childbirth was often the final result of their marital relations.But because,
they were in perfect humans,these normal functions passed on in perfect and sinful life.The periods of temporary "uncleanness" associated with these things would have constantly called that hereditary sinfulness to their attention.And that was especially true with childbirth,for a sin offering was required.-Lev.12:8.

2006-06-11 12:55:40 · answer #5 · answered by lillie 6 · 0 0

Unfortunately its because Christianity thinks women are not worthy of respect so a male birth is good but another female child, how crap. Remember the bible is Gods teaching, enjoy ladies...

2006-06-11 10:57:58 · answer #6 · answered by The Great Turtle Speaks 2 · 0 0

Impossible dream has got the answer but in addition to that answer in order for her to go to the bris she must be clean so she goes to the mikva in order to go near the torah for the ceremony.

2006-06-11 11:05:34 · answer #7 · answered by Gabe 6 · 0 0

no bcz in judaism and islam women are supposed to be unwillingly filthy..just don't ask me why

2006-06-11 10:56:42 · answer #8 · answered by Frankie 3 · 0 0

Biblical sexism, I suppose.

2006-06-11 10:56:37 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Thank God for the coming of Jesus........oh yeah !

2006-06-11 10:58:58 · answer #10 · answered by the ant ! 2 · 0 0

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