You may purchase male or female slaves from among the foreigners who live among you. You may also purchase the children of such resident foreigners, including those who have been born in your land. You may treat them as your property, passing them on to your children as a permanent inheritance. You may treat your slaves like this, but the people of Israel, your relatives, must never be treated this way. (Leviticus 25:44-46 NLT)
2006-06-11 10:49:22 · 4 answers · asked by Skeptic Instinct 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
your joking right?
slavery was quite common in the world in places that had no knowledge of the Bible
Just look and Greek and Roman society. More than half were slaves and serfs and only a small minority were citizens.
2006-06-11 11:09:10 · answer #1 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it was allowed, but slavery never really took off among the Jews the way it did among other peoples. Know why? Slaves are expensive, and it's not really worth it when you're required to liberate them all every seven years (Ex 21:2). And they were supposed to treat their slaves more humanely than other cultures did. So it made slaves more like indentured servants than what you traditionally think of as slaves. The practice was existant in Judaism, but Judaism was hardly the main source of it.
2006-06-11 18:36:59 · answer #2 · answered by Caritas 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Slaves in the Bible were just like the working class today. The truth is people cannot survive on their own the have to live in communities. People sold themselves into slavery in order to survive. The Bible also teaches the masters to be kind to their slaves. Slaves of godly masters were better off than the working class to day in America.
2006-06-11 23:37:58 · answer #3 · answered by Know it all (almost) 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus is the old law. Christians are under the law of peace given by the messiah.
2006-06-11 18:28:26 · answer #4 · answered by FrankH 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋