2006-06-10 21:56:05 · 12 answers · asked by sugarlips 1 in Food & Drink ➔ Cooking & Recipes
The logical explanation of the origin of the North American name of the dish is that it derives from potatoes that have been "fried in the French manner". The English verb fry is ambiguous: it can refer to both to sautéing and to deep-fat frying, while the French pommes frites or patates frites ("fried potatoes") refers unambiguously to deep frying. Thomas Jefferson, famous for including (then relativly unknown in America) European, especially French cuisine in his writings and recipes, referred to fried potatoes in this same manner.
It is sometimes speculated that the word "french" in "french fries" refers to the verb "to french", which means "to cut in thin lengthwise strips before cooking" (Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary, Tenth Ed.) On the other hand, "to french" is defined as "to prepare, as a chop, by partially cutting the meat from the shank and leaving bare the bone so as to fit it for convenient handling" (Oxford English Dictionary) in other dictionaries, seeming to suggest that the meaning of this process is not necessarily as set as it may appear. In addition, the verb "to french" did not start appearing until after "french fried potatoes" had appeared in the English-speaking world.
2006-06-10 22:00:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 9⤊ 2⤋
American fries or fried potatoes are normally much larger slices. Although i'm not completely positive, but i'm assuming it came over from a wartime period-in France they have very very thinly sliced fried potatos called frites, and it may have been a request by soldiers for the smaller fries they had in france....just a guess.
2006-06-10 22:02:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Food Network TV " The secret life of... was told on this show that americans went oversees in world war II ate the local fried potatoes and when the war was over they had a cravings for these fried potatoes, the name stuck.
2006-06-10 23:15:28 · answer #3 · answered by NICK B 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In the regions where the word "chips" is in more common usage, the term "french fries" is usually also understood, but is reserved for the thinner American-style variant as opposed to the much thicker slices of potato found in "fish and chips". In the U.S. and Canada except for Newfoundland, "chips" usually means potato chips (called "crisps" in the U.K.), which while also made of fried potato, are a completely different type of food. In Australia, New Zealand and South Africa "chips" is used for both potato chips and french fries - the latter is qualified as "hot chips" if there is a chance of confusion (or slap chips in South Africa - slap, pronounced 'slup', being Afrikaans for "soft").
2006-06-10 22:00:27 · answer #4 · answered by Vintage-Inspired 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, we ask for fish and chips right here as good. See, at the same time we customarily name crisps chips, we difference while speakme approximately fish and chips. Now if you are asking what we could name them in the event that they had been served with burgers, or on their possess, we name them steak fries, giant thick fish and chips variety fries. They are commonly known as potatoe wedges as good, however the ones are customarily baked or fried. So steak fries are mainly what we name them.
2016-09-08 23:36:43 · answer #5 · answered by malboeuf 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Basically they are not French, the Fries are actually with mussels the national dish in Belgium!
2006-06-10 21:58:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anissa 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
they arent really fried fries they are fried potatoes
2006-06-10 21:58:37 · answer #7 · answered by xxxxprincessgirl 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because its really name it FRENCH FRIES. Hahaha....
2006-06-10 21:58:59 · answer #8 · answered by Rex 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
after ww2 americans came back from france asking for these ....short answer
2006-06-10 21:59:53 · answer #9 · answered by josh j 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
maybe deep frying was originally french?
2006-06-10 21:58:59 · answer #10 · answered by yourdoneandover 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋