2006-06-10 04:12:56 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Hosea. God told him to do this as a sign that He still loved the Israelites, even though they (many of them) had prostituted themselves by worshipping false Gods even though they had made a Covenant with HIM that said, among other things, that He would be their God and they would be His people.
I hope this answers your question.
God Bless.
2006-06-10 04:35:09 · answer #1 · answered by katwishi 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look for Isaiah 1:2
"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, [departing] from the LORD.
Hsa 1:3 So he went and took Gomer the daughter of Diblaim; which conceived, and bare him a son "
2006-06-10 11:31:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the lord told the prophet hosea to go and take himself a wife of whoredoms.
2006-06-10 11:52:16 · answer #3 · answered by Stuie 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Bible is a bunk
2006-06-10 11:26:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i dont know that he was told to. But one of the prophets was married to one. Cant think which one it was, but it sounds familiar.
2006-06-10 11:18:22 · answer #5 · answered by amosunknown 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋