The first sentence is better written, but they both have the same meaning. Written English is normally more formal than spoken English, unless of course you are an American in which case you would be likely to write the same way you speak. So the first would be preferable if it were written, and the second more likely if it were spoken.
2006-06-10 04:18:58
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answer #1
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answered by MARIA C 2
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Technically, in the first sentence "some" is a pronoun and in the second it's a determiner. But there's no difference in meaning and I personally can't identify a difference in emphasis, either.I'd probably say "of the" myself.
2006-06-10 10:30:32
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answer #2
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answered by Goddess of Grammar 7
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Both sentences are expressions of the same statement. They can both be used equally and mean the same. Which one to prefer is a question of style.
2006-06-10 09:50:25
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answer #3
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answered by Magic Gatherer 4
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the differance is in the first you dont understand the things people do as in the acts they perform and in the second this could be there job or anything instead of a act they do
2006-06-10 09:51:24
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answer #4
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answered by rebecca 3
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Both sentences basically bear the same meaning; but the second sentence doesn't make sense. It has syntax error.
2006-06-10 12:13:07
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answer #5
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answered by Forgrat 3
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It just changes the emphasis on the sentence.
I don't understand some of the THINGS people do.
And
I don't understand SOME things people do.
2006-06-10 09:50:26
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answer #6
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answered by Stacy R 6
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one doesn't make sense? and uderstand is misspelled no matter what it's supposed to mean.
2006-06-10 09:50:38
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answer #7
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answered by vampire_kitti 6
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too much analysis of anything leads to paralysis, both are same.
2006-06-10 10:13:43
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answer #8
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answered by iforeveryone 4
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"of the" is in the second sentence. not the first sentence. and understand is spelled wrong in the second sentence.
2006-06-10 09:51:10
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I think they mean the same but expressed differently........
2006-06-10 11:10:13
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answer #10
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answered by charms_martz23 2
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