Beth's working is right. 0.000007151% exactly.
2006-06-23 04:17:58
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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If numbers can be repeated, there is 1 out of (49^6) chances of getting the correct number and order. There is 1/49 chance of getting the first number correct, 1/49 chance of the 2nd number, and so on...
If the numbers cannot be repeated, there is a 1 out of (49*48*47*46*45*44) chance of winning. This is because there is a 1/49 chance of the first number then, if the first number can not be repeated, there is only 48 numbers that the second number can be, 47 numbers the third can be, and so on...
2006-06-23 10:45:48
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answer #2
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answered by kh51 2
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Think of putting 6 blue balls and 43 red balls into a bag. What is the probability of drawing the six red balls (without replacement)?
The probability of winning is:
6/49 * 5/48 * 4/47 * 3/46 * 2/45 * 1/44 = 720/10,068,347,520
Or 7.151 * 10^(-8) to 4 s f
Or about 0.000007 %
2006-06-09 12:20:56
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I'll put it in proper perspective, something much easier to understand.
The odds of winning the lottery is about half as likely than it is of you getting hit by a bolt of lighting. In other words, you're more likely to get hit twice by lighting than you are of winning the lotto once.
2006-06-22 18:30:22
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answer #4
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answered by tee_nong_noy 3
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Is ahh .. is the probability is wery low 2 win
2006-06-22 23:17:26
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answer #5
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answered by ? 2
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1 in 14,000,000 million....
2006-06-09 12:11:40
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answer #6
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answered by rottentothecore 5
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