2006-06-09 06:12:52 · 42 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
I don't believe so.
Just because someone does something that has homosexual connotations doesn't mean they are homosexual.
It's just like if a girl kiss another girl...that doesn't relly make her homosexual either.
There is a definete difference between being "homosexual" and doing something homosexual.
2006-06-09 06:15:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no. I am strait and I made out one time with a gay women to try it since I was in an abusive relationship for amny years and was afraid of men. I did not like it so much but I wanted to see if I could so I would not have to worry about getting beat up again...I didn't know a woman could and do the same thing to other women in lesbian relationships...Now I am older I see there is violence in both sexes and there are so many good men in the world.
Also some people are bisexual and do not have a preference. A truely gay person does not have a choice any more than a strait person does. There are places in the Hypothalamus and Pituitary that release hormones that cause a sexual response to the gender of choice and this can not be changed unless a person forces themselves to be acceptable to the society or christians in the world..but this is, I feel, as unfair as forcing a strait man to have gay sex. Cruel and inhumane...but then this will notbe the first time someone tried to force another to do something cruel and humane in the name of religion, would it? Look what happened to the American Idians, Africans, Mexican Immigrants, and right now as we speak there is somone telling a woman or man they can never marry the person they love due to the lack of sexual acceptance.
Trillions of dollars to support the war...young people and babies dead...don't we have better things to worry about than who someone loves?
2006-06-09 10:38:11 · answer #2 · answered by CHERYL S3 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a guy makes it with a gay guy, and wants to do it again and again, then he is either gay or bisexual.
If the guy didn't like it, and never has same sex attraction again, then it means he was simply experimenting.
2006-06-09 06:37:06 · answer #3 · answered by nemesis 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No! It does not mean that he is gay. There is a word that some people, that can be very ignorant, need to learn to use and that is experimentation. It is normal and healthy human behavior to experiment with the same sex. It is also proven that most mean have at one point in there life while young or in there adult life.
2006-06-09 11:16:51 · answer #4 · answered by West Virginia 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, sexual arousal is not tied to our orientation. Guys can make it with another guy and not be gay but depending on what kind of sex he had he could be extremely messed up. Not to mention being infected with HIV. The Male sexual response is such that physical stimulation will cause an erection and he can do with it what he pleases.
2006-06-15 02:12:46 · answer #5 · answered by ♂ Randy W. ♂ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a guy "makes it" with any other guy, gay or straight, and enjoys it then he is gay.
2006-06-09 08:07:14 · answer #6 · answered by dani_kin 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
engaging in homosexual activity doesn't NECESSARILY mean a person is gay.
most people will have a homosexual experience or two at some point in their lives.
enjoying it enough to do it again and again is probably the difference between gay and straight.
2006-06-09 06:17:32 · answer #7 · answered by Dustin Lochart 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not necessarily. I once dated a guy for several months who claimed to be straight. Since we broke up 6 years ago, he has been with women only. It was just something that he was going through. Still one of my greatest friends.
2006-06-11 07:28:49 · answer #8 · answered by texasboy0069 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not necessarily. Depends if he continues. he could end up straight. most guys who practice gay bashing are insecure about their sexuality, and this is their way of proving to themselves
they*re straight
2006-06-09 06:20:58 · answer #9 · answered by chris 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not. He may have had an oral fantasy or wanted to experience the act .He may have been excited about the idea of sex with the same gender because its forbidden .I know if I tried it once It wouldn't be anything but a new experience...
2006-06-10 12:18:53 · answer #10 · answered by larry6869 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He would only be gay if he found the other man sexually attractive. People engage in sexual acts for many reasons, and not always because they are attracted to the sexual partner.
2006-06-10 08:09:28 · answer #11 · answered by Alex should be working 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋