You win the bet.
2006-06-08 17:52:15
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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tounge2025 u missed one more step :D
2=1 or 1=2
1+2=2+2 when adding two sides with 2
hence
3=4 ;)
2006-06-09 08:22:04
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answer #2
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answered by Maria Abhi 2
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1) X=Y ; Given
2) X^2=XY ; Multiply both sides by X
3) X^2-Y^2=XY-Y^2 ; Subtract Y^2 from both sides
4) (X+Y)(X-Y)=Y(X-Y) ; Factor
5) X+Y=Y ; Cancel out (X-Y) term
6) 2Y=Y ; Substitute X for Y, by equation 1
7) 2=1 ; Divide both sides by Y
-- Proof that 2 equals 1
2006-06-09 01:03:09
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answer #3
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answered by tongue2025 1
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(1+)3=4(is it right?)
2006-06-09 00:54:06
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answer #4
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answered by poi-poi 2
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@tongue's proof 2=1
he assume x=y
but at some point there is a (x-y) which equals 0
then he proceeds to divide by 0, which is invalid
2006-06-09 01:09:49
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answer #5
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answered by iamigloo 6
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You always get ten points for the best answer. Why do you think your question is special. I mean if it was I would get twenty points not just ten.
2006-06-09 00:53:43
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answer #6
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answered by windyy 5
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Yes i can,see
let x=y,
then 3x-3y=0 -----(1)
then 4x-4y=0 -----(2)
Therefore from 1 &2
3x-3y=4x-4y
3(x-y)=4(x-y)
Therefore 3=4
Is that correct??Pls give me 10 pts.
2006-06-09 01:09:58
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answer #7
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answered by webmas2004 1
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I know...3=4 because.........
and I thought I was good at math.
I know.
All numbers are equal!!!
2006-06-09 00:55:01
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answer #8
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answered by Me 4
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not yet... I I I do a letter V out of 2 =I I... then you have a Roman numeral .. IV=4
wildest guess.. dang!
2006-06-09 01:02:06
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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there's a muffin discount!!!buy three muffin and you'll get one for free..so you have for muffin..see 3=4
2006-06-09 01:30:09
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answer #10
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answered by renjana 5
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