why did God place a son in her ,and broke one of his own commandment,(Thou shall not cause adultery)
2006-06-07 16:54:21 · 14 answers · asked by union_lonely_girl 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Good question.joseph beinging the husband, and God gave her a child his,make he wanted the first woman,
2006-06-07 16:59:52 · answer #1 · answered by Olivia B 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
First of all let me fix your question, then I will answer it.
"Mary was supposed to have been a virgin?"
The commandment is not "Thou shall not cause adultery." Instead it is "Thou shalt not commit adultery."
Secondly, God did not commit adultery. Mary remained a virgin, because she never had S*X with anyone. At least that is according to the ever so reliable and credible Biblical authors.
I don't know what you think, but I think Mary's up for a big cover up, because Jesus could not have been a pure and holy man, if his mother was a prostitute. But either way, son of a whore, or a miracle baby... Jesus was a great teacher and prophet, and a savior to many people around the world, a prophetic promiser of hope and peace.
Please, devout Christians, I am not saying that Jesus is the son of a whore, I'm just saying, be careful about how you read scripture to your own understanding, and think about the history that was done in the many early translations of the Bible.
2006-06-08 00:14:07 · answer #2 · answered by The Lonely Skywolf 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
first of all...it is not adultery when he did not even have sexual contact with Mary. Secondly Mary was told by an angel that she would conceive a child under divine means...and that he would be called Jesus. Adultery is defined as: voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and a partner other than the lawful spouse. You can't call it adultery when God did not have any type of sexual contact with Mary, since the baby was conceived under divine means. I don't think you understood this section of the bible as well as you should...you should take another look and see that it has nothing to do with adultery
2006-06-08 00:02:44 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's not "Mary of Jesus" is "Jesus of Mary". What came first, the chicken or the egg? Come on, you should know the answer.
Mary had sex with Jospeh. Just get over it, they wanted a baby, why try to deminise Mary and Joseph's part in the birth?
2006-06-08 00:08:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Allah the Almighty never breaks his own law.
Marry (may peace be upon her) was a virgin and the Jesus was her son.
That was a miracle and miracle proves the presence of Almighty Allah. This doesn't mean breaching of law.
Miracle means some thing that is beyond the human intelligence.
2006-06-08 00:29:29 · answer #5 · answered by A muslim 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He didn't. It was a miracle, and Mary was a virgin Her entire life. Just because She had life placed within Her, that didn't mean She was any less of a virgin. She didn't have sex with anyone, and if She did have sex with God, that power to Her!
2006-06-07 23:58:30 · answer #6 · answered by magicwriter65 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't understand why a virgin birth is so hard to believe. Hello, invitrofertilization is also a sexless act of impregnating an embryo in the uterus. Not saying that this is the way God did it, but sex is not necessary to impregnante.
2006-06-08 00:03:13 · answer #7 · answered by frankyglitz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
LOL, God didn't. Joseph had sex with her because she was his wife. The whole 'son' thing was a special relationship he had with God. A great example is Solomon. He too was a Son of God.
2006-06-08 03:01:57 · answer #8 · answered by Reuben Shlomo 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God neither lusted after nor had sexual intercourse with Mary. So He didn't break his own commandment.
2006-06-08 00:14:09 · answer #9 · answered by velvet 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Umm... Jen... you're right it's not "Mary of Jesus"... but as to the rest that's certainly not what's in the bible. What other account to you have to go on?
2006-06-08 00:13:44 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋